The "Rapid Financing Instrument" (RFI) and "Rapid Credit Facility" (RCF) are both related to the lending provisions of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Explanation:

• Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): The RFI is a lending mechanism by the IMF that provides rapid financial assistance to member countries facing urgent balance of payments needs. This could be due to various factors such as natural disasters, commodity price shocks, or other emergencies.
• Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): The RCF is also an IMF tool, designed to provide concessional financial support to low-income countries. It helps countries facing urgent financing needs due to exogenous shocks, such as economic disruptions or natural disasters, and does not require an upper credit tranche (UCT) conditionality.

These instruments are part of the IMF's efforts to help countries manage financial crises quickly and efficiently.

The correct answer is (b) International Monetary Fund.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
   • True: NEER is an index that measures the value of a country's currency against a basket of other currencies, without adjusting for inflation. An increase in NEER means the domestic currency is appreciating relative to the basket of currencies.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
   • False: REER is NEER adjusted for inflation differentials between the country and its trading partners. An increase in REER typically indicates that the domestic currency is appreciating in real terms, making exports more expensive and imports cheaper, which usually leads to a decline in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
   • True: If domestic inflation is higher than in other countries, REER will increase faster than NEER because REER takes inflation differentials into account. This creates a divergence between NEER and REER.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
   • False: If inflation is too high, the RBI is more likely to sell government securities rather than buy them. By selling government securities, the RBI can absorb excess liquidity from the market, which can help to control inflation.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
   • True: When the rupee is rapidly depreciating, the RBI may intervene in the forex market by selling dollars. This increases the supply of dollars and can help stabilize or strengthen the rupee.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
   • True: If interest rates in the USA or the European Union fall, it could lead to capital outflows from these economies towards emerging markets like India in search of higher returns. To manage the influx of dollars and prevent excessive appreciation of the rupee, the RBI might buy dollars to maintain exchange rate stability.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

Let's analyze the statements about the "G20 Common Framework":

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
   • True: The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI) is indeed an initiative endorsed by the G20 in collaboration with the Paris Club, a group of official creditors who coordinate solutions for countries facing debt difficulties.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
   • True: The G20 Common Framework is specifically designed to help low-income countries address unsustainable debt levels. It aims to provide a coordinated and comprehensive approach to debt treatment for countries eligible under the initiative.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Let's analyze each statement regarding Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs):

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
   • True: IIBs are designed to provide protection against inflation, so the government might offer a lower fixed coupon rate compared to conventional bonds. This is because the principal or interest payments on IIBs are adjusted for inflation, reducing the need for a higher nominal interest rate.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
   • True: The primary advantage of IIBs is that they provide investors with protection against inflation. The principal or interest payments are indexed to inflation, ensuring that the real value of the returns is preserved despite inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
   • False: In India, the interest received from IIBs is taxable as per the investor's income tax slab. Capital gains on IIBs are also subject to tax, though there may be indexation benefits available if held for a certain period.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only.

The "real sector" of the economy refers to the part of the economy that produces goods and services, including activities related to agriculture, manufacturing, and other forms of production.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Farmers harvesting their crops:
   • True: This is a real sector activity because it involves the actual production of goods (crops).
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics:
   • True: This is also a real sector activity, as it involves the manufacturing process of converting raw materials (cotton) into finished goods (fabrics).
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company:
   • False: This is a financial sector activity, not a real sector activity. It involves the provision of financial services rather than the production of goods and services.
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas:
   • False: This is also a financial sector activity, as it involves raising capital through financial markets, not the production of goods or services.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Statement 4 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only.

The term "Indirect Transfers" refers to situations where the sale of shares or interests in a foreign company leads to a tax liability in India because the value of those shares or interests is substantially derived from assets located in India.

Explanation:

• Option (d) describes a situation where a foreign company transfers shares, and these shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India. This scenario reflects the concept of indirect transfers because the transaction, although occurring outside India, involves assets that are located within India. This is often talked about in the context of tax laws in India, where India may seek to tax such transactions under certain conditions.

Correct answer:

(d) A foreign company transfers shares, and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
   • True: Acquiring new technology typically involves a significant investment in assets that will be used over a long period. This kind of expenditure is classified as capital expenditure (CapEx) because it involves purchasing or improving assets that contribute to the long-term value of the organization.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
   • False: Debt financing and equity financing are methods of raising funds and are not classified as capital or revenue expenditures. Capital expenditure refers to investments in assets, while revenue expenditure pertains to day-to-day operational expenses. Debt and equity financing pertain to the sources of funds rather than how funds are used. Debt financing involves borrowing funds that must be repaid with interest, while equity financing involves raising funds by selling shares of the company.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the Indian economy:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
   • True: Household financial savings in India can be invested in various forms, including government securities, bonds, and savings schemes. This means that a portion of household savings is indeed directed towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.
   • True: Dated securities are long-term securities issued by the government at market-related rates. They form a significant part of the internal debt of the government, which is raised through auctions to finance various public expenditures.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Let's analyze each statement about contempt of court in India:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
   • True: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted following the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee. This Act provides for the punishment of contempt of court, including both civil and criminal contempt.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
   • True: The Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court and High Courts the power to punish for contempt of themselves. This power is derived from Article 129 (Supreme Court) and Article 215 (High Courts) of the Constitution.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
   • False: The Constitution of India does not define civil contempt and criminal contempt. Instead, these definitions are provided by the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. The Constitution merely empowers courts to punish contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
   • True: The Parliament has the authority to legislate on matters of contempt of court, as seen with the enactment of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. This Act outlines the procedures and definitions related to contempt of court.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Statement 4 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 4.

Let's analyze the statements about legal recognition and the role of Bar Councils in India:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
   • False: In India, the term "advocate" is a legal profession title used for anyone who has been admitted to the bar and is allowed to practice law. This includes government law officers, lawyers in private legal firms, corporate lawyers, and patent attorneys, provided they are registered with the respective State Bar Council and comply with the legal requirements. No specific exclusion exists for corporate lawyers or patent attorneys from being recognized as advocates if they meet the required qualifications.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
   • True: The Bar Councils in India, particularly the Bar Council of India (BCI), are responsible for laying down standards for legal education and accrediting law colleges. The BCI sets rules and regulations to ensure that law education meets the necessary standards for producing competent legal professionals.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the procedure for amending the Constitution of India:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
   • False: A Constitution Amendment Bill does not require a prior recommendation from the President. The process for amending the Constitution can be initiated by either house of Parliament without the need for the President's recommendation.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
   • True: The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
   • True: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both houses of Parliament by a special majority. There is no provision for a joint sitting of Parliament for considering a Constitution Amendment Bill; the bill must be passed separately by both houses.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
   • False: The Constitution of India does not specifically classify ministers into these four ranks. The classification of ministers into Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State with Independent Charge, and Ministers of State is determined by the Prime Minister and the President. The term "Deputy Minister" is not used in the current classification system; it was used in earlier times.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
   • True: According to the Constitution of India (Article 75), the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, should not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Let's analyze each power in the context of the Lok Sabha:

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
   • False: The ratification of the declaration of Emergency (whether National, State, or Financial) requires approval by both houses of Parliament, not just the Lok Sabha.
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
   • True: The Lok Sabha has the exclusive power to pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. If such a motion is passed, the entire Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign.
3. To impeach the President of India
   • False: The process of impeachment of the President of India involves both houses of Parliament (the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha). A resolution for impeachment must be passed by a two-thirds majority in both houses.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the anti-defection law in India:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
   • False: Under the anti-defection law, specifically the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, a nominated member of a legislature can join any political party within six months of their nomination. A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
   • True: The anti-defection law does not specify a time-frame within which the presiding officer (the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) must decide on a defection case. The decision-making process is left to the discretion of the presiding officer.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Let's analyze each statement about the Attorney General and the Solicitor General of India:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
   • False: The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are indeed allowed to participate in parliamentary proceedings and provide legal advice to the government, but they are not the only officers of the government who can attend Parliament sessions. Various other officials, including ministers, can also attend parliamentary meetings.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
   • False: According to Article 76 of the Constitution, the Attorney General of India serves at the pleasure of the President. It is customary for the Attorney General to resign when the government that appointed him or her resigns. However, this is not mentioned in constitution but a practice followed for maintaining political consistency.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Let's analyze each statement regarding writs issued by courts in India:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
   • True: The writ of Mandamus can be issued to compel a public authority to perform a public duty. It will not lie against a private organization unless that organization has been entrusted with a public duty or is performing a public function.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
   • True: The writ of Mandamus can be issued against a company, including a government company, if it is performing a public function or has been entrusted with a public duty. The nature of the company (whether private or government) does not preclude the issuance of Mandamus if it meets the criteria of public duty.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
   • True: The writ of Quo Warranto can be filed by any public-spirited individual to question the authority of a person holding a public office, asking by what authority they hold that office. It does not require the petitioner to have a personal stake in the matter.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3 only.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM):

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
   • False: While the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to create a digital health ecosystem, adoption by private and public hospitals is encouraged but not mandatory. The mission seeks to integrate health records and services, but hospitals are not legally required to adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
   • True: The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to provide a digital infrastructure for universal health coverage, which includes creating a digital health record system accessible to every citizen of India.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
   • True: The mission aims to provide seamless portability of health records across the country, allowing citizens to access and manage their health information from anywhere, thereby facilitating continuity of care.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 3 only.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
   • False: According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held as soon as possible after the Lok Sabha meets, but it is not solely at the discretion of the Speaker to fix the date.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
   • False: There is no such mandatory provision. The Deputy Speaker is typically elected from among the members of the Lok Sabha, and while conventionally the position has been shared between the ruling and opposition parties, there is no constitutional or legal requirement mandating this.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
   • True: When presiding over a sitting of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker. No appeal lies against the rulings made by the Deputy Speaker during such sittings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
   • False: While it is a parliamentary practice for the Speaker to preside over the election of the Deputy Speaker, the motion is not necessarily moved by the Speaker and seconded by the Prime Minister. The nomination and election process involves other members of the Lok Sabha as well.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct.
• Statement 4 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1 and 3 only.

The most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide among the crops listed is:

(b) Rice

Rice paddies are significant sources of methane due to the anaerobic conditions in flooded fields, which lead to methane production. They are also a source of nitrous oxide emissions, though to a lesser extent compared to methane. The cultivation of rice is recognized for its substantial contributions to greenhouse gas emissions.

The "System of Rice Intensification" (SRI) involves practices such as alternate wetting and drying of rice fields, which have several benefits:

1. Reduced seed requirement: True. SRI methods typically use fewer seeds per unit area compared to conventional methods.
2. Reduced methane production: True. Alternate wetting and drying can reduce methane emissions because methane production is associated with continuous flooding of rice fields, which creates anaerobic conditions.
3. Reduced electricity consumption: True. Reduced water usage and alternate wetting and drying can lead to lower electricity consumption for pumping water.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

The lake in West Africa that has become dry and turned into a desert is:

(b) Lake Faguibine

Lake Faguibine, located in Mali, has experienced significant drying and reduced water levels over recent decades, leading to desertification in the region. This has been caused by a combination of climatic changes and human activities. The other lakes listed (Lake Victoria, Lake Oguta, and Lake Volta) have not experienced such extreme drying.

The Gandikota Canyon in South India was created by the river:

(c) Pennar

The Gandikota Canyon, often referred to as the "Grand Canyon of India," was formed by the erosion caused by the Pennar River flowing through the region. The canyon is located in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh.

Let's analyze each pair:

1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya
   • Incorrect: Namcha Barwa is actually located in the eastern part of the Arunachal Pradesh, and it is part of the eastern Himalayas, not the Garhwal Himalaya.
2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya
   • Correct: Nanda Devi is located in the Kumaon region of the Uttarakhand state in the Himalayas.
3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya
   • Incorrect: Nokrek is located in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, not in the Sikkim Himalaya.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

The term "Levant" generally refers to:

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

The Levant encompasses the eastern Mediterranean region, including countries such as Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, and Israel. It does not cover the entire Mediterranean coast or regions outside of this eastern Mediterranean area.

Among the countries listed, the ones that share a border with Afghanistan are:

3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan

Azerbaijan and Kyrgyzstan do not share a border with Afghanistan. Azerbaijan is located to the west of the Caspian Sea, while Kyrgyzstan is located to the east of Afghanistan and does not share a border with it.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 3, 4 and 5 only.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
   • True: Monazite is indeed a source of rare earth elements, including lanthanides.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
   • True: Monazite contains thorium, which is a significant component of this mineral.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
   • False: Monazite is found in significant quantities in coastal sands, but not in the entire Indian coastal region. It is primarily found in certain areas like the beaches of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
   • True: In India, the processing and export of monazite are regulated by the government due to its thorium content, which is considered strategic.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Statement 4 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 4 only.

In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year, known as the summer solstice, normally occurs in the:

(b) Second half of the month of June

The summer solstice, which marks the longest day of the year, usually falls around June 21st. This date can vary slightly each year but generally falls in the latter part of June.

Let's analyze each pair for correct matching:

1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab
   • Incorrect: Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir, not Punjab.
2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh
   • Correct: Renuka Wetland is indeed located in Himachal Pradesh.
3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura
   • Correct: Rudrasagar Lake is located in Tripura.
4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu
   • Incorrect: Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu.

Correctly matched pairs:

• Pair 2: Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh
• Pair 3: Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Correct answer:

(b) Only two pairs

Let's analyze each statement about Web 3.0:

1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
   • Correct: Web 3.0 emphasizes user sovereignty over data, where individuals can have more control and ownership of their personal information through decentralized technologies.
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks.
   • Correct: Web 3.0 supports the development of decentralized applications, including blockchain-based social networks, which aim to reduce reliance on central authorities and enhance user control.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.
   • Correct: Web 3.0 promotes decentralization and collective user control, reducing the dominance of single corporations. Corporations can be part of the Web 3.0 ecosystem, but the key feature is the decentralized nature of control.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Let's evaluate each statement about "Software as a Service (SaaS)":

1. SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and can change data fields.
   • Correct: SaaS generally offers customization compared to traditional software. Users can customize certain aspects of the interface and can change data fields .
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
   • Correct: One of the key features of SaaS is the ability to access the software and data from various devices, including mobile devices, as long as there is internet connectivity.
3. Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
   • Correct: Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo! Mail are examples of SaaS, as they provide email services over the internet with no need for users to manage the underlying infrastructure or software.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Given the options, the most accurate answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

The "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" (FOBS) refers to a strategic military concept where:

(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.

FOBS involves launching a missile into space and placing it into a low Earth orbit. The missile can then re-enter the Earth's atmosphere and strike a target after completing its orbital path, allowing for a potential surprise attack from any direction. This system was developed during the Cold War to circumvent existing anti-ballistic missile defenses and treaty limitations.

The term "qubit" is used in the context of:

(b) Quantum Computing

A qubit (quantum bit) is the fundamental unit of quantum information, analogous to a bit in classical computing but with the added capability of existing in multiple states simultaneously due to quantum superposition.

Let's assess each technology for its short-range characteristics:

1. Closed-circuit Television (CCTV)
   • can be considered short-range: CCTV systems can have varying ranges depending on the type of cameras and infrastructure.
2. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
   • Considered short-range: RFID technology is used for tracking and identifying objects through radio waves over short distances, usually up to a few meters.
3. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
   • Considered short-range: WLAN, such as Wi-Fi, is used for local networking over relatively short distances within buildings or specific areas.

Correct answer:

Thus, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Let's evaluate each statement about biofilms:

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
   • Correct: Biofilms can indeed form on medical implants and within human tissues, leading to persistent infections and complications.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
   • Correct: Biofilms can also develop on food and food processing surfaces, which can lead to contamination and spoilage.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
   • Correct: Biofilms often exhibit increased resistance to antibiotics compared to planktonic (free-floating) bacteria, making infections difficult to treat.

Correct answer:

All the given statements are correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Let's examine each statement about probiotics:

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
   • Correct: Probiotics can include both bacteria and yeast. Common examples include Lactobacillus and Saccharomyces boulardii.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
   • Incorrect: Many probiotic organisms are indeed found in foods, and some of them can also naturally occur in our gut. The role of probiotics is to supplement and maintain healthy gut flora, but the statement is incorrect in suggesting they do not naturally occur in the gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
   • Correct: Some probiotics, like Lactobacillus, help in the digestion of milk sugars (lactose) and can be beneficial for individuals with lactose intolerance.

Correct answer:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 3.

Let's analyze each statement about COVID-19 vaccines:

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
   • Incorrect: Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is based on the viral vector platform, not mRNA. It uses an adenoviral vector to deliver the genetic instructions for making the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
   • Correct: Sputnik V is a vector-based vaccine that uses two different adenoviruses to deliver the genetic material for the SARS-CoV-2 spike protein.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
   • Correct: COVAXIN is an inactivated virus vaccine, meaning it uses a virus that has been killed or inactivated to stimulate an immune response.

Correct answer:

• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

A major solar storm (solar flare) can have several effects on Earth. Here's how each potential effect applies:

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
   • Correct: Solar storms can disrupt GPS signals and navigation systems due to the increased ionization in the Earth's ionosphere.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
   • Incorrect: Solar storms do not cause tsunamis. Tsunamis are typically caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
   • Correct: Solar storms can induce geomagnetic currents that can potentially damage power grids and transformers.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
   • Correct: Solar storms can enhance auroral activity, causing intense auroras that can be visible at lower latitudes than usual.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
   • Incorrect: Solar storms do not directly cause forest fires. Forest fires are usually caused by natural factors like lightning or human activities.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
   • Correct: Solar storms can affect the orbits of satellites due to increased atmospheric drag and radiation pressure.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
   • Correct: Solar storms can disrupt shortwave radio communications, particularly affecting high-latitude areas like polar regions.

Correct answer:

• Statements 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 are correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only.

The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is:

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis tool created by a coalition of research organizations including Climate Analytics, Ecofys, and the NewClimate Institute. It tracks and evaluates the emission reduction pledges of countries and their progress towards meeting climate goals.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations.

Let's examine each statement:

1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
   • Correct: The Climate Group is indeed an international non-profit organization that works on building networks and driving climate action.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".
   • Correct: EP100 is a global initiative launched by The Climate Group in partnership with the International Energy Agency (IEA). It focuses on promoting energy efficiency among companies.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
   • Correct: EP100 aims to bring together companies that are committed to improving energy efficiency and achieving emission reduction targets.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
   • Correct: Indian companies, such as Infosys and Mahindra Group, are indeed members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the 'Under2 Coalition'.
   • Incorrect: The Secretariat for the Under2 Coalition is not the International Energy Agency but rather the non-profit organization "The Climate Group" in partnership with the "Subnational Global Climate Leadership Memorandum of Understanding (Under2 MOU)".

Given these evaluations, the correct statements are 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1, 3 and 4 only.

The statement compares the function of wetlands to kidneys, suggesting a role in filtering or processing elements within the ecosystem. Given that kidneys filter waste from the blood, the closest analogy for wetlands would be their role in absorbing and removing excess nutrients and pollutants.

Thus, the function that best reflects the comparison is:

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

"Gucchi," also known as morel mushroom, is indeed relevant in the context provided. Here's a breakdown of the statements:

1. It is a fungus.
   • Correct: Gucchi is a type of wild mushroom, classified as a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
   • Correct: Gucchi mushrooms are found in the wild in the forested areas of the Himalayas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
   • Incorrect: Gucchi mushrooms are primarily foraged from the wild rather than commercially cultivated. They are sought after for their high value and unique flavor.

So, the correct statements are 1 and 2.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 2.

Here's an evaluation of the statements regarding polyethylene terephthalate (PET):

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
   • Correct: PET fibers are often blended with wool and cotton to enhance their durability and strength.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
   • Incorrect: PET is generally not recommended for storing alcoholic beverages due to potential interactions with the alcohol and the risk of affecting the taste. It is typically used for non-alcoholic beverages.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
   • Correct: PET bottles are widely recycled into various products, including new bottles, textiles, and other materials.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
   • Incorrect: While PET can be incinerated, it does produce greenhouse gases and other emissions when burned, so it is not entirely free from environmental impact.

So, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1 and 3.

The Golden Mahseer is not a bird; it is a species of fish.

The other options are birds:

• Indian Nightjar: A bird known for its camouflaged plumage.
• Spoonbill: A bird known for its distinctive spoon-shaped bill.
• White Ibis: A bird with white plumage and a long, curved bill.

So, the correct answer is (a) Golden Mahseer.

Nitrogen-fixing plants are those that have the ability to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that can be used by plants, usually through a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Among the options given:

1. Alfalfa – Yes, it is a nitrogen-fixing plant.
2. Amaranth – No, it is not typically considered a nitrogen-fixing plant.
3. Chickpea – Yes, it is a nitrogen-fixing plant.
4. Clover – Yes, it is a nitrogen-fixing plant.
5. Purslane (Kulfa) – No, it does not have significant nitrogen-fixing properties.
6. Spinach – No, it does not have significant nitrogen-fixing properties.

So, the correct answer is (a) 1, 3 and 4 only.

The "Miyawaki method" is a technique for creating dense, small forests in urban areas using native plant species. This method focuses on rapid growth and high biodiversity to improve environmental quality in cities.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas.

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of the Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. The "Reserved" subjects were those that were retained by the Governor and included matters of high importance where the Governor had significant control.

The "Reserved" subjects included:

1. Administration of Justice
2. Land Revenue
3. Police

"Local Self-Government" was generally classified as a "Transferred" subject, which was more under the control of elected representatives and provincial ministers.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(c) 1, 3 and 4.

In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:

(b) Coins.

Among the freedom fighters listed, Rash Behari Bose was actively associated with the Ghadar Party.

So, the correct answer is:

(d) 3 only.

The Cripps Mission was sent to India by the British government in March 1942 during World War II to secure Indian cooperation in the war effort. The mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps. The proposals put forward by the mission aimed to secure Indian support by promising a degree of self-governance after the war.

Let's analyze the statements in the question:

Statement 1: The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.

• Correctness: This statement is incorrect. The Cripps Mission proposed the formation of a Constituent Assembly that would include members elected by the Provincial Assemblies and nominated by the Princely States. The idea was to create a body that would draft a new constitution for India after the war.

Statement 2: Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

• Correctness: This statement is correct. The Cripps Mission allowed for the possibility that any province that did not wish to accept the new constitution could opt out and negotiate a separate agreement with Britain, potentially leading to a different status outside the Indian Union. This was one of the controversial aspects of the Cripps proposals, as it hinted at the possibility of a divided India.

Conclusion:

Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Among the texts listed:

1. Nettipakarana - This is a Buddhist text, not a Jaina text.
2. Parishishtaparvan - This is a Jaina text, specifically a part of the Jaina literature.
3. Avadanashataka - This is a Buddhist text, not a Jaina text.
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana - This is a Jaina text.

Therefore, the Jaina texts from the list are:

• Parishishtaparvan
• Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 4 only.

Let's examine each pair:

1. Aryadeva — Aryadeva was a renowned Buddhist scholar, not a Jaina scholar.
2. Dignaga — Dignaga was a prominent Buddhist scholar, known for his contributions to Buddhist logic.
3. Nathamuni — Nathamuni was a Vaishnava scholar and a key figure in the Vaishnavism tradition, known for reviving the worship of Lord Vishnu.

Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are:

• Dignaga — Buddhist scholar
• Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar

The correct answer is:

(c) Only two pairs.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
   • This is incorrect. The first Mongol invasion occurred during the reign of Qutb-ud-din Aibak, not Jalal-ud-din Khalji. Jalal-ud-din Khalji was the first ruler of the Khalji dynasty, which came after the initial Mongol incursions.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
   • This is correct. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, the Mongols did indeed march towards Delhi and besieged it. However, they were eventually repelled by the forces of Ala-ud-din Khalji.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
   • This is also correct. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq faced several Mongol invasions, and during his reign, parts of the north-western regions of his kingdom were indeed temporarily lost to the Mongols.

The correct statements are:

• Statement 2
• Statement 3

Thus, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Here is the evaluation of the statements:

1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
   • Incorrect: The Dutch established their factories on the east coast of India in places like Masulipatnam and Nagapattinam, but these were not granted by the Gajapati rulers. The Gajapati rulers were mainly from Odisha, and the Dutch presence was more in the areas under the control of the Marathas and the Mughal Empire.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
   • Correct: Alfonso de Albuquerque, the Portuguese commander, captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510. Goa was an important strategic location for the Portuguese in the Indian Ocean.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.
   • Correct: The English East India Company established a factory in Madras (now Chennai) in 1639, on land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire, specifically from the local rulers who were successors to the Vijayanagara Empire.

Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

The statements are evaluated as follows:

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
   • Correct: When the US Federal Reserve tightens monetary policy, it usually leads to higher interest rates in the US. This can attract global capital back to the US, leading to capital flight from other countries.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
   • Correct: Capital flight can lead to a depreciation of the domestic currency, making it more expensive for firms to service their foreign-denominated debt (ECBs) as they would need more local currency to pay back the same amount of foreign currency debt.
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
   • Incorrect: Devaluation of the domestic currency actually increases the currency risk associated with ECBs. This is because the cost of repaying foreign-denominated debt increases as the domestic currency loses value against the foreign currency.

The correct statements are 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Let's evaluate each statement:

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India: This statement is incorrect. Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company: This statement is correct. ICRA Limited is a public limited company in India.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency: This statement is correct. Brickwork Ratings is indeed an Indian credit rating agency.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Let's evaluate the statements regarding the Banks Board Bureau (BBB):

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB: This statement is incorrect. The Chairman of the BBB is generally an eminent person appointed by the government, not the Governor of the RBI.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks: This statement is correct. One of the primary functions of the BBB is to recommend the selection of top executives in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and other financial institutions.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans: This statement is correct. The BBB does assist PSBs in strategies, particularly in areas such as capital raising.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Let's look at India's membership in the given organizations:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): India is a founding member of the AIIB, which was established to support the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region.
2. Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR): India became a member of the MTCR in 2016. The MTCR is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying a 500 kg payload at least 300 km.
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO): India became a full member of the SCO in 2017. The SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance.

Since India is a member of all three organizations, the correct answer is:

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Let's analyze the statements regarding Vietnam:

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in recent years.
   • This statement is correct. Vietnam has experienced rapid economic growth, particularly due to its strong manufacturing sector and integration into global supply chains.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
   • This statement is incorrect. Vietnam is a one-party state led by the Communist Party of Vietnam.
3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
   • This statement is correct. Vietnam's economy has benefitted significantly from its deep integration with global supply chains, particularly in electronics and textiles.
4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
   • This statement is correct. Vietnam's competitive labor costs and economic stability have made it an attractive destination for global manufacturing.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
   • This statement is likely incorrect. While Vietnam has a growing e-service sector, it is not known as the most productive in the Indo-Pacific region, especially compared to countries like India and Singapore.

The correct answer, considering the accurate statements, is:

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4

The organization responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation in India is the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI implements monetary policy, including setting interest rates and managing money supply, to control inflation and maintain price stability in the economy.

Correct Answer: (d) Reserve Bank of India

With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):

1. Correct: NFTs can enable the digital representation of physical assets, such as artwork, real estate, etc.
2. Correct: NFTs are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain, ensuring their uniqueness and ownership.
3. Incorrect: NFTs are non-fungible, meaning they are unique and cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency like fungible tokens such as cryptocurrencies. Therefore, they are not used as a medium of commercial transactions in the same way as fungible assets.

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Let's analyze the pairs:

1. Ghataprabha — Telangana: Incorrect
   • Ghataprabha Reservoir is in Karnataka.
2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh: Correct
   • Gandhi Sagar Reservoir is located in Madhya Pradesh.
3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh: Incorrect
   • Indira Sagar Reservoir is in Madhya Pradesh.
4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh: Incorrect
   • Maithon Reservoir is in Jharkhand (not Chhattisgarh).

Three pairs are not correctly matched.

Correct Answer: (c) Only three pairs

The Labour Bureau in India is responsible for compiling information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers.

Correct Answer: (c) Labour Bureau

The role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO) includes:

1. Serving as a major source of coal statistics in the Government of India.
2. Monitoring the progress of the development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. Hearing any objections to the Government's notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas.

However, it does not ensure that coal mining companies deliver coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes in those areas. One of its key purposes is to protect the rights of tribal people, including their land rights.

Correct Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

The body constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is:

(c) Central Ground Water Authority

The correct statements regarding the "United Nations Credentials Committee" are:

(a) 3 only

Here's why:

1. The Credentials Committee is not set up by the UN Security Council; it is a committee of the UN General Assembly.
2. It traditionally meets during the sessions of the General Assembly, which are usually in September. The committee does not have specific meetings in March and June.
3. The committee assesses the credentials of representatives of UN members and submits a report to the General Assembly for approval.

The statement that best describes the 'Polar Code' is:

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

The Polar Code, formally known as the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, is designed to enhance the safety of shipping and protect the environment in polar regions. It addresses the unique challenges of operating in Arctic and Antarctic waters.

The term "greenwashing" best describes:

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound.

Greenwashing refers to the practice where a company or organization gives a misleading impression of environmental friendliness to appear more environmentally responsible than it actually is.

The correct answer is:

(c) 2 and 5

Here's the explanation:

• Azerbaijan and Uzbekistan are members of the Organization of Turkic States.
• Armenia and Croatia are not members.
• Romania is also not a member of the Organization of Turkic States.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Here's the explanation:

1. A coastal state indeed has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, have the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) can extend up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline, and this is a standard measure outlined in the Convention.

The correct answer is:

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

The Senkaku Islands (known as the Diaoyu Islands in China) are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea. They are the subject of ongoing territorial disputes between China and Japan.

The correct answer is:

(c) Only three pairs

Here's the explanation for each pair:

1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China: This is incorrect. There hasn't been significant recent news about China setting up a permanent military base in Chad.
2. Guinea — Suspension of Constitution and Government by military: This is correct. In 2021, the military in Guinea led by Colonel Mamady Doumbouya suspended the constitution and government after a coup.
3. Lebanon — Severe and prolonged economic depression: This is correct. Lebanon has been facing a severe economic crisis for several years, with widespread economic depression and instability.
4. Tunisia — Suspension of Parliament by President: This is correct. In 2021, Tunisian President Kais Saied suspended Parliament and dismissed the Prime Minister, citing a political crisis.

Therefore, three pairs are correctly matched.

The correct answer is:

(b) Only two pairs

Here's the explanation for each pair:

1. Anatolia — Turkey: This is correct. Anatolia, also known as Asia Minor, is a large peninsula in Turkey.
2. Amhara — Ethiopia: This is correct. Amhara is a region in Ethiopia.
3. Cabo Delgado — Spain: This is incorrect. Cabo Delgado is a province in Mozambique, not Spain.
4. Catalonia — Italy: This is incorrect. Catalonia is an autonomous community in northeastern Spain, not Italy.

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

The correct answer is:

(a) Ant

Certain species of ants, especially leafcutter ants, are known for cultivating fungi. These ants cut leaves and bring them back to their nests, where they use the leaves as a substrate to grow a specific type of fungus. The ants feed on this fungus and have a mutualistic relationship with it.

The correct answer is:

(b) Only two pairs

Here’s the correct information about the sites of Ashoka’s major rock edicts:

1. Dhauli — Odisha (Correct)
2. Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh (Correct)
3. Jaugada — Odisha (Not Madhya Pradesh)
4. Kalsi — Uttarakhand (Not Karnataka)

Thus, the correct pairs are:

1. Dhauli — Odisha
2. Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is:

(b) Only two pairs

Here’s the correct information about the kings and their dynasties:

1. Nannuka — Chandela (Incorrect; he was a king of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty)
2. Jayashakti — Paramara (Correct)
3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara (Correct)
4. Bhoja — Rashtrakuta (Incorrect; he was a king of the Paramara dynasty)

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are:

2. Jayashakti — Paramara
3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara

The "Yogavasistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

(a) Akbar

Emperor Akbar's reign saw significant efforts to translate various Indian texts into Persian, and Nizamuddin Panipati was one of the translators involved in this cultural and intellectual exchange.

The teachings of Ramanuja, a prominent philosopher and theologian of the Vishishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism) tradition, emphasize devotion as the key to salvation. Therefore, the correct statement representing his teachings is:

(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.

Regarding the Somnath Temple:

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. - This is correct. The Somnath Temple is indeed one of the twelve Jyotirlingas dedicated to Lord Shiva.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. - This is correct. Al-Biruni, the Persian scholar, did provide a description of the Somnath Temple during his visit to India in the 11th century.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. - This is incorrect. The present-day Somnath Temple's consecration (Pran Pratishtha) was performed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the then President of India, on 1st May 1951.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only