Let's analyze the options provided:

(a) Creating new All India Services:

• The Rajya Sabha does not have equal powers with the Lok Sabha in this matter. The creation of new All India Services requires a law passed by both houses, but it must be done with the approval of the Lok Sabha, which has greater power in such matters.

(b) Amending the Constitution:

• Both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha have equal powers in amending the Constitution. Any constitutional amendment must be passed by both houses.

(c) Removal of the government:

• The Rajya Sabha does not have equal powers with the Lok Sabha regarding the removal of the government. The Lok Sabha has the primary role in this process, as it can pass a vote of no confidence to remove the government. The Rajya Sabha does not have this power.

(d) Making cut motions:

• The power to make cut motions is specific to the Lok Sabha. Cut motions are used by the Lok Sabha to question the expenditure of the government, and this power is not available to the Rajya Sabha.

Based on this, the Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in:

Answer: (b) amending the Constitution.

The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) has equal powers with the Lok Sabha (House of the People) in the following areas:

1. Legislative Powers: Both houses must pass any bill (except Money Bills) for it to become law.
2. Constitutional Amendments: Both houses have equal power in amending the Constitution.
3. Approval of Ordinances: Ordinances issued by the President must be approved by both houses.
4. Consideration of Bills: Non-financial bills require the approval of both houses.

However, in financial matters and Money Bills, the Lok Sabha holds greater power.

The correct statements regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) are:

• MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
• A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
• The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Statement 3 is incorrect because unused MPLADS funds can be carried forward to the next year. Therefore, the correct answers are:

Protection against untouchability is covered under the category of Fundamental Rights known as the Right to Equality.

Here’s a brief explanation:

• (a) Right against Exploitation: This category primarily addresses issues like forced labor and human trafficking.
• (b) Right to Freedom: This category encompasses freedoms such as speech and expression, assembly, and movement.
• (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies: This right allows individuals to approach the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• (d) Right to Equality: This category includes various provisions to ensure equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. It specifically incorporates protection against untouchability and discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

The correct answer is:

(d) Right to Equality.

In India, the separation of the judiciary from the executive is primarily enshrined in:

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

Here’s an explanation for each option:

• (a) The Preamble of the Constitution: The Preamble does not specifically mention the separation of judiciary from the executive. It outlines the objectives and values of the Constitution but does not provide detailed guidelines on the organization of the government.
• (b) A Directive Principle of State Policy: Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines provided in Part IV of the Constitution that aim to direct the state in making laws and policies. Article 50 specifically directs the state to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state.
• (c) The Seventh Schedule: The Seventh Schedule deals with the distribution of powers between the Union and the States through three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. It does not address the separation of judiciary from the executive.
• (d) The Sixth Schedule: The Sixth Schedule pertains to the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram and does not cover the separation of judiciary from the executive.

The correct answer is:

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy.

The document known as ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’ is presented by the Finance Minister along with the Budget because it is mandated by:

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Here’s an explanation for each option:

• (a) Long standing parliamentary convention: While parliamentary conventions guide many aspects of parliamentary procedure, the presentation of specific documents like the Macro Economic Framework Statement is mandated by legislation, not convention.
• (b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India: Article 112 pertains to the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement (the Budget), and Article 110(1) defines a Money Bill. Neither specifically mandates the Macro Economic Framework Statement.
• (c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India: Article 113 deals with the procedure for presenting the Budget and the provisions for discussion and approval but does not specifically mention the Macro Economic Framework Statement.
• (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003: This Act requires the presentation of several documents related to fiscal management, including the Macro Economic Framework Statement, which provides an assessment of the economy and the government's fiscal policies.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.

A constitutional government by definition is a:

(d) limited government

Here’s why:

• (a) Government by legislature: While a constitutional government includes legislative elements, it is not solely defined by the legislature. A government by legislature focuses on the role of the legislative body in governance, but it doesn’t encapsulate the concept of constitutionalism.
• (b) Popular government: A popular government refers to a system where power is derived from the people, typically through elections. While constitutional governments often are popular, the term "constitutional" emphasizes limitations on power rather than the source of authority.
• (c) Multi-party government: A multi-party system refers to the presence of multiple political parties and does not necessarily define the nature of a constitutional government.
• (d) Limited government: A constitutional government is characterized by the limitation of power through a constitution. The constitution sets the rules and boundaries for how power is exercised, ensuring that the government operates within the constraints established by the constitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) limited government.

The principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) are reflected in the following parts of the Constitution of India:

1. Preamble: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution embodies the fundamental values of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, which align with the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy: These principles, while not justiciable, provide guidelines for the state to ensure social and economic justice, which are in harmony with the ideals of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
3. Fundamental Duties: While the Fundamental Duties are a reflection of moral and civic responsibilities, they also align with the principles of human rights by emphasizing the duty to respect the rights of others and to promote the welfare of the people.

Thus, all three parts reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a landmark document adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 10, 1948. It was drafted by representatives from different legal and cultural backgrounds from all regions of the world. The declaration was a response to the atrocities of World War II and aimed to set a common standard of human rights for all people and nations.

Here are some key aspects of the UDHR:

1. Preamble: The preamble sets the context for the declaration, emphasizing the importance of human dignity, freedom, and justice.
2. Articles: The UDHR consists of 30 articles outlining various rights and freedoms to which all people are entitled. These include:
   • Article 1: All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.
   • Article 2: Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in the declaration, without distinction of any kind.
   • Article 3: Everyone has the right to life, liberty, and security of person.
   • Article 4: No one shall be held in slavery or servitude.
   • Article 5: No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment.
   • Article 6: Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law.
   • Article 7: All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law.
   • Article 19: Everyone has the right to freedom of opinion and expression.
   • Article 21: Everyone has the right to take part in the government of their country, directly or through freely chosen representatives.
   • Article 23: Everyone has the right to work, to free choice of employment, to just and favorable conditions of work, and to protection against unemployment.
   • Article 25: Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of themselves and their family.
   • Article 26: Everyone has the right to education.
   • Article 29: This article states that everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of their personality is possible. It also mentions that in the exercise of their rights and freedoms, everyone shall be subject only to such limitations as are determined by law solely for the purpose of securing due recognition and respect for the rights and freedoms of others and of meeting the just requirements of morality, public order, and the general welfare in a democratic society.
3. Impact and Legacy: The UDHR has been highly influential and serves as the foundation for many international human rights treaties, national constitutions, and laws. It remains a crucial reference point for human rights advocacy and protection worldwide.
4. Non-Binding Nature: While the UDHR itself is not legally binding, it has inspired numerous binding international treaties and covenants, such as the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights (ICESCR), which together with the UDHR form the International Bill of Human Rights.

The UDHR represents a universal recognition that basic rights and fundamental freedoms are inherent to all human beings, regardless of nationality, sex, ethnicity, religion, or any other status.

Legal Services Authorities in India provide free legal services to various categories of citizens based on income and social status. The correct categories are:

1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000: Individuals falling below this income threshold are eligible for free legal services.
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000: This category also qualifies for free legal services if their annual income is below this threshold.
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000: Members of OBCs with an income below this level are eligible for free legal services.
4. All Senior Citizens: Senior citizens are not automatically eligible for free legal services under Legal Services Authorities unless they meet specific criteria related to their income or other conditions.

Given this information, the correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Let’s review each pair to determine the correct matches:

1. Alma-Ata Declaration: This is correctly matched with Healthcare of the people. The Alma-Ata Declaration, adopted in 1978, emphasized the importance of primary health care and the goal of achieving "Health for All" globally.
2. Hague Convention: The Hague Convention primarily deals with the protection of cultural property in times of armed conflict and international child abduction, not specifically biological and chemical weapons. The latter are addressed by the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) and Biological Weapons Convention (BWC).
3. Talanoa Dialogue: This is correctly matched with Global climate change. The Talanoa Dialogue was a process under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) aimed at facilitating dialogue on climate action and enhancing global commitments.
4. Under2 Coalition: This is not correctly matched with Child rights. The Under2 Coalition is a global initiative focused on climate action and aims to limit global temperature rise by reducing greenhouse gas emissions, not child rights.

Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are:

(c) 1 and 3 only.

In a Parliamentary System of Government:

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

Here’s why:

• (a) All political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government: This is not a defining feature of a parliamentary system. A coalition government or a majority government may be formed, but not all parties necessarily participate.
• (b) The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it: This accurately describes a parliamentary system. The government (or the executive) is accountable to the parliament (or legislature) and can be removed through a vote of no confidence or similar parliamentary procedures.
• (c) The Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them: In a parliamentary system, the government is typically elected by the parliament, not directly by the people. Removal is through parliamentary procedures, not direct elections by the people.
• (d) The Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term: This does not describe a parliamentary system. In a parliamentary system, the government can be removed by the parliament through a vote of no confidence, and there is no fixed term preventing removal.

The correct answer is:

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it.

The ideal of a Welfare State is declared in:

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

Here’s an explanation for each option:

• (a) Directive Principles of State Policy: These principles, found in Part IV of the Constitution, outline the goals and ideals for achieving a Welfare State. They guide the state in formulating policies and laws to ensure social and economic justice, which is central to the concept of a Welfare State.
• (b) Fundamental Rights: These rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, guarantee individual freedoms and equality but do not specifically declare the ideal of a Welfare State.
• (c) Preamble: The Preamble to the Constitution sets out the objectives of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, but it does not specifically declare the ideal of a Welfare State.
• (d) Seventh Schedule: The Seventh Schedule deals with the distribution of powers between the Union and State governments, and does not address the concept of a Welfare State.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy.

One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is:

(a) the final goal of a stateless society

Here's why:

• (a) The final goal of a stateless society: Both Gandhism and Marxism, in their ideal forms, envision a society where the state is no longer necessary. For Marxism, this is a result of the eventual withering away of the state after the class struggle is resolved and communism is established. Gandhism envisions a stateless society as part of its ideal of a self-reliant village republic where the state becomes redundant.
• (b) Class struggle: This is a core concept in Marxism, where class struggle is central to the theory of historical and social development. Gandhism, however, focuses on non-violent resistance and does not emphasize class struggle as a central element.
• (c) Abolition of private property: Marxism advocates for the abolition of private property as a means to eliminate class distinctions and achieve communism. Gandhism, on the other hand, does not specifically advocate for the abolition of private property, though it does promote a more equitable distribution of resources.
• (d) Non-violence: Non-violence is a fundamental principle of Gandhism but is not a tenet of Marxism, which historically has been associated with revolutionary violence and class struggle.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) the final goal of a stateless society.

In the context of India, the characteristic most appropriate for bureaucracy is:

(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Here’s why:

• (a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy: While bureaucracy plays a role in supporting parliamentary democracy, it is not primarily characterized by this function. Its main role is more focused on implementing policies rather than directly influencing the scope of parliamentary democracy.
• (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism: Although bureaucracy operates within the federal structure and supports its functioning, its primary role is not specifically to strengthen federalism.
• (c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth: While bureaucracy can contribute to political stability and economic growth through effective governance, its principal role is to implement policies rather than directly facilitate these broader goals.
• (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy: This is the core function of the bureaucracy. It is primarily responsible for executing and administering the policies and decisions made by the government.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy.

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is:

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Here’s a brief explanation:

• (a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect: This is not entirely accurate. The Preamble is considered a part of the Constitution and provides guiding principles and objectives, but it does not have direct legal effect on its own.
• (b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either: This is incorrect. The Preamble is indeed a part of the Constitution, although it does not have direct legal effect in the sense of enforcing specific legal rights or obligations.
• (c) A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part: This is incorrect. While the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution, it does not have the same legal effect as other substantive parts of the Constitution, such as Fundamental Rights or Directive Principles.
• (d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts: This is correct. The Preamble sets out the objectives and guiding principles of the Constitution but does not have legal enforceability on its own. It provides context and inspiration for interpreting other parts of the Constitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

"Gold Tranche" (Reserve Tranche) refers to:

(d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members

Here’s a brief explanation:

• (a) A loan system of the World Bank: The Gold Tranche is not related to the World Bank; it pertains to the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• (b) One of the operations of a Central Bank: It is not specifically an operation of a central bank but rather a feature of the IMF's system.
• (c) A credit system granted by WTO to its members: The World Trade Organization (WTO) does not provide credit systems; its role is related to trade and trade agreements.
• (d) A credit system granted by IMF to its members: The Gold Tranche (or Reserve Tranche) refers to the portion of a member country’s quota in the IMF that it can withdraw without stringent conditions. It provides members with a certain amount of liquidity and financial support based on their quota.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members.

The "Gold Tranche" refers to a specific portion of a member country's quota in the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be accessed without stringent conditions. Here are the key details:

1. Quota System: Each IMF member has a quota, which is a financial commitment to the IMF and determines their financial and voting power in the organization.
2. Gold Tranche: This term specifically refers to the first 25% of a country's quota that can be withdrawn from the IMF without the need for additional conditions or formal agreements.
3. Purpose: The Gold Tranche is intended to provide countries with easier access to funds for addressing balance of payments issues or other financial needs. It is a form of liquidity that can be used to meet short-term financial requirements.
4. Historical Context: The term "Gold Tranche" originates from the IMF's historical use of gold to calculate quotas and allocations, although today the IMF uses Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) as the basis for calculations.

The Gold Tranche mechanism is designed to offer flexibility and support to member countries, facilitating their access to IMF resources when needed.

Part IV of the Constitution of India contains the Directive Principles of State Policy. Let’s examine the correctness of the statements:

1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by courts. They are guidelines for the government to follow in policy-making and law-making but do not have legal enforceability.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
   • This statement is correct. The Directive Principles are not justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts. They are meant to guide the state in making laws and policies but do not have the force of law.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
   • This statement is correct. The Directive Principles are intended to guide and influence the creation of laws and policies by the state to promote social and economic welfare.

Given this analysis:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 2 and 3 only.

Let's examine each pair for correctness:

1. Aurang - In-charge of treasury of the State
   • This is incorrect. The term "Aurang" does not refer to the in-charge of the treasury of the State. The correct term for the treasurer in Mughal administration was "Diwan" or "Mir Bakshi" (responsible for military affairs and treasury).
2. Banian - Indian agent of the East India Company
   • This is correct. In historical context, "Banian" refers to Indian agents or intermediaries who acted on behalf of European trading companies, including the East India Company.
3. Mirasidar - Designated revenue payer to the State
   • This is correct. "Mirasidar" was a term used in the South Indian context for landowners or cultivators who were responsible for paying revenue to the state.

Given this analysis:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Sthaviravadins, also known as the Theravada sect, are a part of the early form of Buddhism and belong to the Hinayana tradition, not Mahayana. Theravada Buddhism is considered one of the oldest forms of Buddhism.
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
   • This statement is correct. The Lokottaravadins were indeed an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect. They held that the Buddha was above ordinary human beings, which influenced the development of Mahayana Buddhism.
3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism.
   • This statement is correct. The Mahasanghikas were among the early sects to start deifying the Buddha, which contributed to the development of Mahayana Buddhism, where the Buddha is often revered as a divine figure.

Given this analysis:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only.

Let's examine each statement to determine which correctly explains the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century:

(a) Indian handicrafts were ruined.

• This statement is correct. The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to the influx of cheap, machine-made textiles into India, which severely impacted and often ruined traditional Indian handicrafts and textiles.

(b) Machines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers.

• This statement is incorrect. During the first half of the nineteenth century, the introduction of machines in the Indian textile industry was limited. The bulk of textile production continued to be hand-made, and large-scale mechanization occurred later.

(c) Railways lines were laid in many parts of the country.

• This statement is partially correct but not fully accurate for the specified time period. While railway development began in India in the latter part of the nineteenth century, significant railway expansion did not occur until the latter half of the century, and especially after the 1850s.

(d) Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of British manufactures.

• This statement is incorrect. During the first half of the nineteenth century, the British imposed low duties on their manufactured goods entering India and high duties on Indian goods exported to Britain. This was part of a policy that favored British manufactured products over Indian goods.

Given this analysis:

• Statement (a) is correct.
• Statements (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect or not entirely accurate for the first half of the nineteenth century.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) Indian handicrafts were ruined.

To determine the correct chronological order of the events in Indian history, we need to establish the timelines for each:

1. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman-I:
   • Mahendravarman I reigned from around 600 to 630 CE. He was an important ruler in the Pallava dynasty, which established its power in South India during this period.
2. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja:
   • King Bhoja of the Pratihara dynasty ruled from approximately 836 to 885 CE. The Pratiharas rose to prominence during his reign.
3. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala:
   • Gopala founded the Pala dynasty around 750 CE. This was before the rise of the Pratiharas under King Bhoja.
4. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I:
   • Parantaka I was a significant Chola ruler who reigned from around 907 to 955 CE. His reign marked the beginning of Chola power, which continued to grow significantly afterward.

Putting these events in chronological order:

1. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman-I (600-630 CE)
2. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala (around 750 CE)
3. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja (836-885 CE)
4. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I (907-955 CE)

The correct chronological order is:

(c) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

The phrase that defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period is:

(c) A bill of exchange

Here's why:

• (a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates: This is not correct. Hundis were not official advisories from the king.
• (b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts: This is not accurate. Hundis were financial instruments, not diaries.
• (c) A bill of exchange: This is correct. Hundis were a form of financial instrument similar to a bill of exchange used for trade and transactions, facilitating the transfer of money and credit in medieval India.
• (d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates: This is incorrect. Hundis were not orders from feudal lords but rather financial documents used in trade.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) A bill of exchange.

To determine the correctness of the statements about Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar's book Desher Katha, let’s evaluate each statement:

1. It warned against the Colonial State's hypnotic conquest of the mind.
   • This statement is correct. Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar’s Desher Katha was critical of the colonial impact on Indian society, including the psychological and cultural impact of colonial rule.
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
   • This statement is correct. The book did indeed inspire the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs, which were part of the broader Swadeshi movement aimed at promoting Indian culture and resisting colonial rule.
3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.
   • This statement is incorrect. Although Desher Katha was influential in Bengal, Deuskar’s use of ‘desh’ was not confined to Bengal but referred more broadly to India as a whole in the context of the freedom struggle.

Given this analysis:

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only.

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931 was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin. It aimed to end the Civil Disobedience Movement and lay the groundwork for further negotiations. Let’s analyze the statements in the context of this pact:

1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
   • This is correct. One of the terms of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was the invitation to the Indian National Congress to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
   • This is correct. The pact included the agreement to withdraw the repressive ordinances and laws related to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
   • This is incorrect. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact did not include an acceptance of an enquiry into police excesses. This demand was not part of the agreement.
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence
   • This is incorrect. The pact did not specify the release of prisoners based on whether they were charged with violence or not. It provided for the release of all prisoners who were convicted of offenses related to the Civil Disobedience Movement, but not those charged with serious violence.

Given this analysis:

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only.

The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal targeting untouchable people, was published by:

(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar

Gopal Baba Walangkar was a prominent social reformer and activist who worked towards the upliftment of the untouchable communities in India. He was known for his efforts in education and social reform, and he published the Vital-Vidhvansak to address issues faced by untouchables and to promote social justice.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar.

In the context of the history of India, the terms 'kulyavapa' and 'dronavapa' are related to the measurement of land.

• Kulyavapa: This term refers to a unit of measurement for land used in ancient India, where 'kula' represents a small unit of land measurement.
• Dronavapa: This is another unit of measurement for land. One 'dronavapa' was larger than a 'kulyavapa'.

So, both terms denote units used for measuring land.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) measurement of land.

The inscription containing the advice:

“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.”

was given by:

(a) Ashoka

Ashoka the Great, the Mauryan emperor, is known for his edicts promoting tolerance and respect for all religions. This inscription reflects his policy of Dhamma, which emphasized non-violence and respect for different religious sects.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) Ashoka.

In the context of the cultural history of India, the term 'paramitas' refers to:

(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path

'Paramitas' are the six perfections or virtues in Mahayana Buddhism that a Bodhisattva practices to attain enlightenment. These perfections include generosity, ethics, patience, effort, meditation, and wisdom.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path.

The Rakhmabai case of 1884 was a landmark legal case in British India concerning the rights of women, particularly in the context of child marriage and marital consent. Here are the key details:

1. Background: Rakhmabai was married off at a young age to a man named Dadaji Bhikaji, whom she had never met. When she reached adulthood, she refused to live with him, citing that she had not given her consent to the marriage.
2. Legal Battle: Dadaji Bhikaji sued Rakhmabai to compel her to live with him as his wife. The case was brought before the British courts, and it became a significant legal battle over the rights of women in marriage.
3. Outcome: The case highlighted the issue of child marriage and the lack of agency women had in such arrangements. Although the court ultimately ruled in favor of Dadaji Bhikaji, compelling Rakhmabai to live with him, the case generated substantial public debate and criticism of the practice of child marriage.
4. Impact: The Rakhmabai case drew attention to the need for legal reform in the area of women's rights and child marriage. It influenced subsequent legislative changes and social reform movements aimed at improving the status and rights of women in India.

The case was pivotal in raising awareness about the plight of women subjected to forced marriages and contributed to the broader discourse on social reforms in colonial India.

Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century due to several factors:

1. Synthetic Indigo: The most significant factor was the development and widespread adoption of synthetic indigo. German chemists, particularly those from the company BASF, successfully created synthetic indigo in the late 19th century. Synthetic indigo was cheaper to produce and more consistent in quality than natural indigo, leading to a sharp decline in demand for the latter.
2. Economic Viability: As synthetic indigo became more popular, the prices of natural indigo fell, making it less economically viable for farmers to continue its cultivation. The decreased profitability led many farmers to switch to other more lucrative crops.
3. Indigo Rebellion (Neel Bidroho): The Indigo Rebellion of 1859-60 in Bengal, where peasants revolted against the oppressive conditions imposed by British planters, had long-lasting effects. Although the rebellion itself was suppressed, it brought significant attention to the plight of indigo farmers and contributed to a decline in forced indigo cultivation.
4. Changing Agricultural Practices: Over time, farmers found alternative crops that were more profitable and sustainable. The diversification of agriculture away from indigo to other cash crops like jute, tea, and later cotton, provided better economic returns.
5. Colonial Policies: British colonial policies also played a role. The administration, after witnessing the consequences of the rebellion and the declining profitability of indigo, did not enforce indigo cultivation as stringently as before.

These factors collectively led to the decline of indigo cultivation in India by the early 20th century.

Wellesley established the Fort William College, Calcutta primarily because:

(d) he wanted to train British civilians for administrative purposes in India

Here's why:

• Training British civilians for administrative purposes: Fort William College was established in 1800 by Lord Wellesley with the aim of providing training for British East India Company officers. The college was designed to train British administrators in Indian languages and culture to improve their effectiveness in governance.
• Asked by the Board of Directors: There is no evidence suggesting that the establishment of Fort William College was a direct instruction from the Board of Directors in London.
• Revive interest in oriental learning: Although the college contributed to the study of Indian languages and culture, its primary purpose was administrative training rather than merely reviving interest in oriental learning.
• Provide employment to William Carey and associates: William Carey was an important figure in the field of education and missionary work but was not directly linked to the founding of Fort William College for employment purposes.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) he wanted to train British civilians for administrative purposes in India.

"Ulgulan", or the Great Tumult, refers to:

(d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900

Here’s why:

• Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900: The term "Ulgulan" means "Great Rebellion" or "Great Tumult" in the Munda language. This revolt, led by Birsa Munda, was a significant tribal uprising against British rule and was aimed at restoring Munda Raj and challenging the exploitative practices of the British administration and landlords.
• The Revolt of 1857: This was a major but separate uprising against British rule, also known as the Sepoy Mutiny or the First War of Indian Independence. It is not referred to as "Ulgulan."
• The Mappila Rebellion of 1921: This was a revolt by the Mappila Muslims in Kerala against British rule and landlords. It is not associated with the term "Ulgulan."
• The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60: This was an uprising by peasants against the oppressive practices of indigo planters in Bengal, but it is not referred to as "Ulgulan."

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra
   • This is incorrect. Panini, the ancient Sanskrit grammarian, lived during the time of the Nanda dynasty, not during the reign of Pushyamitra. Panini is known for his work on Sanskrit grammar and is often placed around the 4th century BCE, while Pushyamitra Shunga, who founded the Shunga dynasty, came later.
2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana
   • This is incorrect. Amarasimha, a scholar and lexicographer, is traditionally associated with the court of King Vikramaditya II, not Harshavardhana. Harshavardhana ruled earlier, in the 7th century CE, while Amarasimha's work is associated with the 6th century CE.
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandragupta-II
   • This is correct. Kalidasa, the celebrated Sanskrit poet and playwright, is generally associated with the reign of Chandragupta II, also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya, of the Gupta dynasty.

Given the analysis, the only correct statement is:

(c) 3 only

In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, "Pronuclear Transfer" is used for:

(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

Here's why:

• Prevention of mitochondrial diseases: Pronuclear transfer is a technique used to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. It involves transferring the pronuclei (which contain the genetic material from the sperm and egg) from a fertilized egg with faulty mitochondria into a donor egg with healthy mitochondria. This allows the embryo to develop with healthy mitochondria while retaining the genetic material from the intended parents.
• Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm: This describes a different procedure related to in vitro fertilization (IVF), not pronuclear transfer.
• Genetic modification of sperm producing cells: Pronuclear transfer does not involve modifying sperm-producing cells.
• Development of stem cells into functional embryos: This is a separate process involving stem cell biology and regenerative medicine, not pronuclear transfer.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring.

Pronuclear transfer is a technique used in reproductive medicine, specifically in the context of preventing mitochondrial diseases. It involves the following steps:

1. Fertilization: Both the eggs from the prospective mother and the donor are fertilized with sperm to create embryos.
2. Pronuclear Stage: After fertilization, the embryos reach the pronuclear stage, which is just before the fusion of the sperm and egg nuclei.
3. Transfer: The pronuclei (the nuclei from the sperm and egg) are extracted from the fertilized egg of the prospective mother and transferred into the fertilized egg of the donor, which has had its own pronuclei removed.
4. Implantation: The resulting embryo, now containing the genetic material from the prospective parents and the cytoplasm (including mitochondria) from the donor egg, is implanted into the prospective mother's uterus.

Purpose:

• The primary goal of pronuclear transfer is to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. Mitochondrial diseases are caused by defects in mitochondrial DNA, which is passed from mother to child. By using mitochondria from a donor egg, the risk of passing on such diseases is reduced.

Ethical and Legal Considerations:

• Pronuclear transfer is a subject of ethical and legal debate, particularly regarding the implications of genetic modification and the use of donor genetic material. Different countries have varying regulations and guidelines regarding its use.

Overall, pronuclear transfer is a cutting-edge technique aimed at improving reproductive outcomes for couples at risk of passing on mitochondrial diseases.

With the current state of development in Artificial Intelligence (AI), it can effectively do the following:

1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units: AI can optimize energy usage and reduce electricity consumption through advanced data analytics and predictive maintenance.
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs: AI technologies, including natural language processing and generative models, are capable of generating creative content such as stories and songs.
3. Disease diagnosis: AI is widely used in medical diagnostics to analyze medical images, predict disease outcomes, and support clinical decision-making.
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion: AI is effective in converting written text into spoken words, widely used in applications like virtual assistants and accessibility tools.
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy: This is not directly related to AI. Wireless power transmission is a physical technology that does not inherently involve AI.

Given these points, the correct answer is:

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only.

Here’s a breakdown of the statements regarding Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology:

1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm: This is correct. VLC operates in the visible light spectrum, which ranges from approximately 375 nm to 780 nm.
2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication: This is incorrect. VLC is generally used for short-range communication due to its reliance on line-of-sight and the need for direct visibility between the transmitter and receiver.
3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth: This is correct. VLC can achieve high data rates, potentially surpassing those of Bluetooth in certain applications due to its wide bandwidth.
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference: This is correct. VLC uses visible light, which does not interfere with other electromagnetic signals like radio frequencies, making it immune to electromagnetic interference.

Based on these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only.

Let's evaluate each statement about Blockchain Technology:

1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls: This is correct. Blockchain is indeed a decentralized public ledger that allows anyone to inspect the data, but no single entity controls it. This is a core feature of many blockchain implementations, such as those used for cryptocurrencies.
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only: This is incorrect. While blockchain technology is often associated with cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, its structure and design are not limited to cryptocurrency data. Blockchain can be used for various applications, including supply chain management, voting systems, and smart contracts, beyond just cryptocurrency.
3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission: This is correct. The decentralized and open-source nature of blockchain allows developers to build and deploy applications without requiring permission from a central authority.

Given these points, the correct answer is:

(d) 1 and 3 only.

At the present level of technology, drones can be effectively used for the following activities:

1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field: This is correct. Drones are increasingly used in agriculture for tasks such as spraying pesticides and fertilizers due to their ability to cover large areas and apply chemicals precisely.
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes: This is correct. Drones are used to inspect volcanic craters and other hazardous areas, providing valuable data without risking human life.
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis: This is correct. Drones have been used to collect breath samples from whales by flying over them and capturing the aerosols in their exhalations.

Given these capabilities, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

The experiment described, involving a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle with lasers shining between them, refers to the Evolved LISA (Laser Interferometer Space Antenna) mission.

Evolved LISA is a planned space-based gravitational wave observatory that aims to detect and measure gravitational waves by maintaining precise formation between three spacecraft. This setup helps to measure the tiny changes in distance between the spacecraft caused by passing gravitational waves.

Given this description, the correct answer is:

(d) Evolved LISA.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding recent advancements in genetic and stem cell technologies:

1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent: This is correct. Techniques like germline gene editing involve making genetic changes in the germ cells (eggs and sperm) to potentially pass these changes to future generations.
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage: This is correct. Technologies such as CRISPR-Cas9 allow for genome editing at the embryonic stage to correct genetic mutations before birth.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig: This is correct. Research has explored using human induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) in animal embryos, including pigs, to study developmental processes and potential disease models.

Given that all statements are correct, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

Here's an evaluation of each statement regarding the importance of Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCVs) in India:

1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis: This is correct. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines are designed to protect against pneumococcal diseases, which include pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis, among others.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced: This is correct. By preventing pneumococcal infections through vaccination, the overall burden of disease is reduced, which in turn can decrease the need for antibiotics and help mitigate the issue of antibiotic resistance.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions: This is incorrect. While PCVs are generally safe and well-tolerated, they can have side effects, such as mild fever or redness at the injection site. Some individuals might also experience allergic reactions, though these are rare.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(b) 1 and 2 only.

In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” (PKI) is used in the context of:

(a) Digital security infrastructure

PKI is a framework that manages digital keys and certificates to ensure secure communication and data integrity in digital transactions. It is essential for implementing secure online communications, digital signatures, and encryption, which are crucial for maintaining digital security.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the differences between plant and animal cells:

1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not: This is correct. Plant cells have a rigid cell wall made of cellulose, whereas animal cells do not have cell walls.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do: This is incorrect. Both plant and animal cells have plasma membranes. The difference is that plant cells have an additional cell wall outside the plasma membrane.
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst an animal cell has many small vacuoles: This is correct. Mature plant cells typically have a single large central vacuole, while animal cells have multiple smaller vacuoles.

Given this information, the correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 3 only.

To provide immunity or mitigate the effects of a global financial crisis, consider the following actions/policies:

1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings: This is a sound policy. Relying on short-term foreign borrowings can make a country vulnerable to sudden shifts in investor sentiment and capital flows, which can be problematic during a financial crisis.
2. Opening up to more foreign banks: This might not necessarily provide immunity. While foreign banks can bring investment and expertise, they can also increase exposure to global financial volatility. Hence, this might not be a direct measure to shield the country from a crisis.
3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility: Full capital account convertibility can actually increase vulnerability to financial crises, as it allows for the free flow of capital across borders, which can lead to rapid outflows in times of crisis.

Given these considerations, the most effective measure among the options provided is:

(a) 1 only.

When you withdraw ₹1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply is:

(d) to leave it unchanged.

Here's why:

• Demand Deposit Account: This refers to money held in checking accounts, which are part of the broader money supply (M1).
• Cash Withdrawal: When you withdraw cash from your demand deposit account, the amount of money in the checking account decreases, but the amount of cash in circulation increases by the same amount.

In essence, the total amount of money in circulation remains the same because one component of the money supply (demand deposits) decreases while another component (physical cash) increases by the same amount. Thus, the aggregate money supply remains unchanged.

The major characteristic of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India is:

(b) It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.

Here’s why:

• FDI: Foreign Direct Investment involves a foreign entity making an investment in a company or enterprise in another country. It typically involves acquiring a significant ownership stake or establishing business operations, such as setting up a subsidiary or branch.
• Non-debt Creating: Unlike loans or other forms of debt, FDI does not create a liability that needs to be repaid. Instead, it represents an investment in the equity of a company, thereby contributing to the company's capital without creating an obligation for debt servicing.

In contrast:

• Option (a) describes investment in capital instruments, but this is more characteristic of Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) rather than FDI.
• Option (c) and (d) describe aspects related to debt and institutional investments, which do not capture the essence of FDI.

Given the current state of India’s international trade, the correct statements are:

• India's merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
• India's exports of services are more than its imports of services.
• India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Here’s a brief explanation for each statement:

1. India's merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports: India often runs a trade deficit in goods as its imports exceed exports in the merchandise category.
2. India's imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years: This statement is generally not accurate; imports of these goods have fluctuated but not shown a consistent decrease.
3. India's exports of services are more than its imports of services: India has a positive services trade balance, with services exports exceeding imports.
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit: India generally runs a current account deficit, where the total value of imports (both goods and services) exceeds the total value of exports.

The term 'West Texas Intermediate' (WTI) refers to a grade of:

(a) Crude oil

WTI is a type of crude oil that is used as a benchmark in oil pricing. It is known for its relatively high quality and is traded on various commodity exchanges.

The correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Explanation:

Non-financial debt refers to the debt held by non-financial sectors of the economy, which includes households, businesses, and the government. It does not include the debt held by financial institutions like banks or insurance companies. The components mentioned in the question fall under non-financial debt:

1. Housing loans owed by households:
   • These are loans taken by households to purchase or renovate homes. These are considered non-financial debt.
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards:
   • Credit card debt owed by households is also considered non-financial debt.
3. Treasury bills:
   • Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government. They are considered part of the government's non-financial debt.

Since all three items listed are part of non-financial debt, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

In India, nuclear reactors are kept under "IAEA safeguards" primarily because:

(b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies

The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards are applied to reactors that use imported nuclear fuel. This is part of international agreements to ensure that nuclear technology is not diverted to nuclear weapons programs and is used solely for peaceful purposes. Reactors that use domestic supplies of uranium and are part of India's own nuclear program, which includes the use of indigenous technology and fuel cycles, may not always be under IAEA safeguards.

The correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Explanation:

1. First Statement: "Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited."
   • This statement is correct. TRIMS (Trade-Related Investment Measures) under the WTO framework prohibit measures that are inconsistent with the provisions of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), including quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors.
2. Second Statement: "They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services."
   • This statement is incorrect. TRIMS apply only to investment measures related to trade in goods, not services. The General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS) governs trade in services.
3. Third Statement: "They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment."
   • This statement is correct. TRIMS focus on investment measures that affect trade in goods, such as local content requirements, and do not directly regulate foreign investment itself.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, it would not:

(b) 2 only

Here's why:

1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) - An expansionist monetary policy often involves reducing the SLR to free up more funds for banks to lend, which supports economic growth.
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate - Increasing the MSF Rate is not consistent with an expansionist monetary policy. An expansionist policy typically involves lowering rates to make borrowing cheaper and encourage economic activity.
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate - Cutting the Bank Rate and Repo Rate is a typical action under an expansionist monetary policy to lower borrowing costs and stimulate economic activity.

With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, the correct statements are:

(b) 3 and 4 only

Here’s the reasoning:

1. Worker productivity (Rs. per worker at 2004–05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas. - This statement is correct. Post-liberalization, urban areas experienced higher productivity growth compared to rural areas.
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased. - This statement is incorrect. The share of rural areas in the workforce has generally decreased as more people moved to urban areas for better opportunities.
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased. - This statement is correct. The non-farm sector, including rural industries and services, saw growth in rural areas due to diversification and liberalization.
4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased. - This statement is correct. The growth rate of rural employment has slowed down, partly due to reduced agricultural growth and migration to urban areas.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Here’s the reasoning:

1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. - This statement is incorrect. While DCCBs play a significant role in providing short-term credit to agriculture, Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks also play major roles in credit delivery to the agriculture sector. In many cases, Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks may provide a larger share of short-term agricultural credit compared to DCCBs.
2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. - This statement is correct. DCCBs serve as a crucial link in the cooperative credit structure by providing financial support to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), which then disburse credit to individual farmers.

The correct answer is:

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Here’s the reasoning:

1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer - Covered. Cyber insurance often includes coverage for costs related to restoring a compromised computer system.
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so - Typically not covered. Cyber insurance usually does not cover the cost of replacing physical hardware damaged by miscreants; it focuses more on digital threats and related expenses.
3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion - Covered. Cyber insurance may cover expenses related to hiring experts to deal with cyber extortion and minimize financial losses.
4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit - Covered. Legal defense costs related to cyber incidents may be included in cyber insurance policies.

The correct answer is:

(c) 2, 3 and 6 only

Here’s why:

1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops - Not considered as public investment. MSP is a policy measure but not a direct public investment in agriculture.
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies - Considered as public investment. This improves the efficiency and transparency of credit delivery.
3. Social Capital development - Considered as public investment. It involves building community infrastructure and improving social cohesion, which supports agricultural development.
4. Free electricity supply to farmers - Not considered as public investment. While it is a subsidy, it is not a direct investment in agricultural infrastructure or development.
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system - Not considered as public investment. This is more of a financial relief measure rather than an investment.
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments - Considered as public investment. This improves the infrastructure for storage and preservation of agricultural produce.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Here’s why:

1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. - Correct. The Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) helps banks assess the firm's ability to meet its interest payments on debt. A lower ratio indicates higher risk.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. - Correct. It is useful for evaluating both current and potential future risks related to the firm’s ability to cover interest expenses.
3. The higher a borrowing firm's level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt. - Incorrect. A higher Interest Coverage Ratio indicates better ability to service debt, as it shows the firm earns more than enough to cover interest payments.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Here's how each factor affects the price of rice in India:

1. Minimum Support Price (MSP) - The MSP is set by the government to ensure farmers receive a minimum price for their produce, which can affect the market price of rice.
2. Government's trading - Government trading activities, including the sale of rice through public distribution systems or export, can influence rice prices.
3. Government's stockpiling - The government’s stockpiling policies, aimed at maintaining buffer stocks for food security, can impact market prices by controlling supply.
4. Consumer subsidies - Subsidies provided to consumers for purchasing rice can affect demand and consequently the market price of rice.

All these factors can influence rice prices in different ways.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation:

1. First Statement: "The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade."
   • This statement is not correct. The trade value between India and Sri Lanka has seen fluctuations due to various economic factors, bilateral issues, and changes in trade policies.
2. Second Statement: "Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh."
   • This statement is correct. Textiles and textile articles are indeed a significant component of trade between India and Bangladesh. Both countries are major producers of textiles, and this forms an important part of their bilateral trade.
3. Third Statement: "In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia."
   • This statement is not correct. Bangladesh has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia in recent years, not Nepal.

Therefore, only the second statement is correct.

The correct answer is:

(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

All four countries listed in this group are members of the G20.

Under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme, short-term credit support is provided to farmers for the following purposes:

1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
2. Consumption requirements of farm households
3. Post-harvest expenses

The other options like purchase of combine harvesters, tractors, mini trucks, and construction of family houses or setting up of village cold storage facilities are generally covered under long-term credit rather than short-term credit.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Let's evaluate each statement:

1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
   • This statement is correct. In the CPI, food and beverages have a significant weightage, reflecting their major impact on consumer inflation. In contrast, WPI has a lower weightage for food items as it focuses more on wholesale prices, including industrial goods.
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
   • This statement is correct. WPI mainly tracks the prices of goods at wholesale levels and does not include services. CPI, on the other hand, includes both goods and services, providing a broader measure of inflation experienced by consumers.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) primarily uses the CPI, particularly the CPI for industrial workers (CPI-IW), as its key measure of inflation for monetary policy decisions. WPI was used historically but is no longer the primary measure for policy decisions.

Given this analysis, the correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Let's check each pair:

1. Mekong - Andaman Sea
   • The Mekong River flows into the South China Sea, not the Andaman Sea.
2. Thames - Irish Sea
   • The Thames River flows into the North Sea, not the Irish Sea.
3. Volga - Caspian Sea
   • This is correct. The Volga River flows into the Caspian Sea.
4. Zambezi - Indian Ocean
   • This is correct. The Zambezi River flows into the Indian Ocean.

Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are:

(c) 3 and 4 only

The correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:

1. First Statement: "In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India."
   • This statement is incorrect. While the government does procure these crops at MSP, the procurement is not unlimited. It is subject to certain conditions, such as the state's procurement capacity, storage limitations, and specific quotas for each crop.
2. Second Statement: "In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise."
   • This statement is also incorrect. The MSP is a minimum price set by the government to ensure farmers receive a guaranteed price for their produce. However, it is possible for market prices to rise above the MSP depending on supply and demand dynamics in the market. The MSP is not a cap on the market price but rather a safety net.

Let's examine each statement:

1. ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
   • This statement is correct. Commercial Paper is indeed a short-term, unsecured promissory note issued by corporations to raise funds for working capital.
2. ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
   • This statement is incorrect. A Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a short-term financial instrument issued by banks, not the RBI, to raise funds. It is generally issued to individuals or corporations.
3. ‘Call Money' is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
   • This statement is correct. Call Money refers to short-term finance that banks borrow and lend to each other, typically for overnight periods.
4. ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest-bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.
   • This statement is incorrect. Zero-Coupon Bonds do not pay periodic interest. Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value. They are not typically short-term and are not exclusively issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.

Thus, the correct statements are:

(c) 1 and 3 only

Let's analyze each pair:

1. Parivrajaka - Renunciant and Wanderer
   • This is correctly matched. A Parivrajaka refers to a renunciant or wandering ascetic in Indian religious traditions.
2. Shramana - Priest with a high status
   • This is incorrect. A Shramana is not a high-status priest but refers to a seeker or practitioner of ascetic life, often associated with Jainism and early Buddhism.
3. Upasaka - Lay follower of Buddhism
   • This is correctly matched. An Upasaka is a lay follower or supporter of Buddhism.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are:

(b) 1 and 3 only

Let's review each statement about Indian elephants:

1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
   • This is correct. In elephant herds, the group is typically led by an older female, known as the matriarch.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
   • This is correct. Elephants have one of the longest gestation periods among mammals, which can extend up to 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
   • This is incorrect. Female elephants can continue to calve beyond the age of 40, often up to 50 years or more, though their fertility may decline with age.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.
   • This is incorrect. The state with the highest elephant population in India is Karnataka, not Kerala.

So, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Let's examine each protected area in relation to the Cauvery Basin:

1. Nagarhole National Park - This park is located in the Western Ghats and is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is in the Cauvery Basin.
2. Papikonda National Park - This park is situated in the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh and does not lie in the Cauvery Basin.
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve - Located in Tamil Nadu, this reserve is in the Western Ghats and falls within the Cauvery Basin.
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary - This sanctuary is in Kerala and is part of the Western Ghats, which is within the Cauvery Basin.

Based on this information:

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

All the statements provided are correct:

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead, and mercury: Coal ash can contain various harmful heavy metals including arsenic, lead, and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment: These are common pollutants released from coal combustion, contributing to air pollution and acid rain.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal: Indian coal generally has a high ash content compared to coal from other regions.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the implication is:

(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.

Plants listed under Schedule VI are considered to be "protected plants," and cultivating them requires a license from the government. This schedule aims to protect certain species from over-exploitation and to ensure their conservation.

The advantages of zero tillage in agriculture include:

1. Sowing of wheat without burning the residue of the previous crop.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only.

Explanation:

According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, the following raw materials can be used for the production of biofuels:

• Cassava: A starchy tuberous root used for bioethanol production.
• Damaged wheat grains: These can be used for producing ethanol.
• Rotten potatoes: These can be converted into bioethanol.
• Sugar beet: A source of sugar, which can be fermented to produce ethanol.

Groundnut seeds and Horse gram are generally not considered suitable raw materials for biofuel production under the current policy.

With reference to pulse production in India:

1. Black gram can indeed be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops.
2. Green gram does not account for nearly half of pulse production; it is a significant pulse but not the major contributor.
3. The production trend for pulses is such that kharif pulses have generally seen increased production, while rabi pulses have seen varying trends, not necessarily a decrease.

Based on these statements:

(a) 1 only

The correct answer is (a) Cotton.

Explanation:

• Subtropical Nature: Cotton is a subtropical crop that thrives in warm climates.
• Frost Sensitivity: Cotton is sensitive to frost, and exposure to frost can damage the crop.
• Frost-Free Days: Cotton requires a long frost-free period (about 210 days) to grow properly.
• Rainfall Requirements: Cotton needs moderate rainfall, typically between 50 to 100 centimeters, which aligns with the subtropical conditions.
• Soil Requirements: Cotton grows best in light, well-drained soils that can retain moisture.

The statements regarding solar water pumps are:

1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps.
   • This statement is incorrect. Solar power can be used for both surface pumps and submersible pumps. Solar-powered submersible pumps are widely used for pumping water from wells and other deep sources.
2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.
   • This statement is also incorrect. Solar power can be used to run various types of pumps, including centrifugal and piston pumps. The type of pump used depends on the specific application and requirements, not the power source.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The statements regarding the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India are:

1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
   • This statement is correct. Raising bud chip settlings in a nursery is an efficient method that reduces the amount of seed material needed and allows for better management of seedling quality.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
   • This statement is not entirely accurate. Single-budded setts often have lower germination rates compared to multi-budded setts, which provide a better establishment in direct planting.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
   • This statement is correct. Single-budded setts have better survival rates under adverse weather conditions as they are less prone to diseases and rotting compared to larger setts.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.
   • This statement is correct. Tissue culture techniques are used to propagate sugarcane plants, ensuring disease-free and high-quality planting material.

Based on these observations, the correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 4 only

Let's examine the practices mentioned and determine which are considered eco-friendly agriculture practices in the context of India:

1. Crop Diversification

• Correct: Crop diversification involves growing a variety of crops on the same farm. It helps in improving soil health, reducing pest and disease risks, and increasing biodiversity. It's considered an eco-friendly practice as it reduces reliance on chemical inputs and promotes sustainable agriculture.

2. Legume Intensification

• Correct: Legume intensification refers to increasing the proportion of legumes in cropping systems. Legumes have the ability to fix nitrogen in the soil, reducing the need for synthetic fertilizers. This practice enhances soil fertility and is environmentally sustainable, making it an eco-friendly agricultural practice.

3. Tensiometer Use

• Correct: Tensiometers are devices used to measure soil moisture levels, helping farmers to optimize irrigation. This reduces water wastage and prevents over-irrigation, which can lead to soil degradation and nutrient leaching. Therefore, it is considered an eco-friendly practice.

4. Vertical Farming

• Incorrect: Vertical farming is a method of growing crops in vertically stacked layers, often incorporating controlled-environment agriculture. It maximizes space use, reduces the carbon footprint associated with transportation, and often uses less water and pesticides. it can have environmental drawbacks like high energy consumption, resource-intensive infrastructure, and potential waste and water management issues.

Conclusion:

• Correct Statements:(a) 1, 2 and 3 of the given practices are considered eco-friendly agriculture practices.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2 and 3 only.

Let's analyze the advantages of fertigation in agriculture:

Statement 1: Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.

• Correct: Fertigation allows for the precise control of the pH of the irrigation water, which can help in controlling the alkalinity. By adjusting the fertilizers mixed with the water, the pH can be controlled, ensuring better nutrient absorption by plants.

Statement 2: Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.

• Correct: Fertigation can indeed be used for the efficient application of various types of fertilizers, including phosphatic fertilizers like Rock Phosphate. It allows for the precise and uniform distribution of fertilizers, leading to efficient nutrient management.

Statement 3: Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.

• Correct: Fertigation enhances the availability of nutrients to plants because the nutrients are delivered directly to the root zone in a soluble form, making them readily available for absorption.

Statement 4: Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

• Correct: Fertigation allows for controlled and precise application of nutrients, reducing the chances of over-application and subsequent leaching into the soil, thus minimizing nutrient loss and environmental impact.

Conclusion:

• Correct Statements: All the given statements are correct.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1, 3, and 4 only.

Let's analyze the statements related to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT):

Statement 1: OMT is measured up to a depth of 26ºC isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March.

• Incorrect: Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) is typically calculated by averaging sea surface temperatures (SST) over a defined period (e.g., monthly, annually) and across a specific geographic area. This can be done using data from satellite observations, buoys, and other oceanographic instruments.