The correct answer is:

(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

Explanation:

• Option (a): The ceiling laws were aimed at individual holdings, not just family holdings, to prevent the concentration of land in the hands of a few individuals or families.
• Option (b): The primary goal of land reforms in independent India was to redistribute land to the landless to reduce inequality and ensure a more equitable distribution of agricultural land.
• Option (c): Land reforms did not specifically promote the cultivation of cash crops; the primary focus was on land redistribution.
• Option (d): There were exemptions allowed under certain circumstances, such as for plantations or specific categories of land, so this statement is incorrect.

Therefore, Option (b) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is:

(c) World Economic Forum

Explanation:

The Global Competitiveness Report is an annual report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It assesses the competitiveness landscape of economies around the world, providing insights into the drivers of their productivity and prosperity.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
   • This statement is correct. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the East India Company's monopoly on trade with India, but it retained the monopoly on trade in tea and with China.
2. Statement 2: It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
   • This statement is also correct. The Charter Act of 1813 explicitly asserted the British Crown's sovereignty over the Indian territories under the East India Company.
3. Statement 3: The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
   • This statement is incorrect. The revenues of India were still managed by the East India Company, although under increasing oversight from the British government. The British Parliament did not directly control Indian revenues at this point.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The correct answer is:

(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
   • This statement is correct. The Swadeshi Movement, which began in response to the partition of Bengal in 1905, encouraged the boycott of British goods and the promotion of indigenous industries. This led to a revival of traditional crafts and the establishment of small-scale industries in India.
2. Statement 2: The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
   • This statement is also correct. The National Council of Education was established in 1906 as part of the Swadeshi Movement to promote indigenous education and reduce reliance on the British educational system.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League – Mahatma Gandhi:
   • This is correctly matched. Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932 to work towards the eradication of untouchability in India.
2. All India Kisan Sabha – Swami Sahajanand Saraswati:
   • This is correctly matched. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was a prominent leader of the All India Kisan Sabha, which was founded in 1936 to promote the interests of the peasantry.
3. Self-Respect Movement – E.V. Ramaswami Naicker:
   • This is correctly matched. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker, also known as Periyar, founded the Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu in 1925 to promote self-respect and social equality among marginalized communities.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

The correct answer is:

(c) Sohgaura

Explanation:

• Chanhudaro is a Harappan site located in present-day Pakistan.
• Kot Diji is also a Harappan site located in present-day Pakistan.
• Desalpur is a Harappan site located in Gujarat, India.
• Sohgaura is not a Harappan site; it is a site associated with the Mauryan period, known for the Sohgaura copper plate inscription, one of the earliest known inscriptions in India.

Thus, Sohgaura is not a Harappan site.

The correct answer is:

(a) Kanganahalli

Explanation:

• Kanganahalli is an archaeological site in Karnataka, India, where a relief sculpture inscription mentions "Ranyo Ashoka" (King Ashoka) along with a stone portrait of Ashoka. This is a rare instance where Ashoka is directly depicted in a sculptural form.
• Sanchi is known for its stupas and Ashokan pillars but does not have a relief sculpture inscription mentioning "Ranyo Ashoka" along with a portrait of him.
• Shahbazgarhi is an Ashokan inscription site in present-day Pakistan, but it does not contain a relief sculpture or a portrait of Ashoka.
• Sohgaura is associated with the Mauryan period but does not feature any relief sculpture of Ashoka.

Thus, Kanganahalli is the correct answer.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Mahayana Buddhism is characterized by several key features, all of which are listed in the question:

1. Deification of the Buddha: Mahayana Buddhism often portrays the Buddha as a divine figure, going beyond the original concept of him as just a great teacher.
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas: In Mahayana Buddhism, the ideal is to become a Bodhisattva, a being who seeks enlightenment not only for themselves but also for the benefit of all sentient beings.
3. Image worship and rituals: Mahayana Buddhism includes the worship of Buddha images and the practice of various rituals, which were not as emphasized in early Buddhist traditions.

Therefore, all three statements are features of Mahayana Buddhism.

The correct answer is:

(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

Explanation:

• Vishti refers to forced labor, which was prevalent during the Gupta period. It was a form of labor that the state imposed on its subjects, particularly for public works or state-related projects.
• Statement (a) is correct: Vishti was considered a form of tax or service that people owed to the state, contributing to the state's income or resources.
• Statement (b) is incorrect: Vishti was not absent in specific regions like Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar; it was a common practice throughout the empire.
• Statement (c) is incorrect: Forced laborers under Vishti were typically not entitled to wages; it was an obligation rather than paid work.
• Statement (d) is incorrect: There was no specific practice of sending the eldest son of the laborer as the forced laborer.

Therefore, (a) is the correct statement.

The correct answer is:

(d) Vijayanagara

Explanation:

• Kalyaana Mandapas were marriage halls or pavilions built specifically for the purpose of conducting marriage ceremonies and other social events in temples.
• This architectural feature is notably associated with the Vijayanagara Empire, where such mandapas were constructed as part of the grand temples and palace complexes.
• The Chalukyas, Chandelas, and Rashtrakutas also made significant contributions to temple architecture, but the specific construction of Kalyaana Mandapas is most closely associated with the Vijayanagara period.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
   • This statement is correct. The Amil was indeed responsible for revenue collection in the Delhi Sultanate.
2. Statement 2: The iqtā system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
   • This statement is incorrect. The iqtā system, where land revenue was assigned to officials in return for their services, was not an ancient indigenous institution but was introduced by the Sultans of Delhi, particularly by the Sultanate rulers like Qutb-ud-din Aibak and Iltutmish, as part of their administrative reforms.
3. Statement 3: The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
   • This statement is incorrect. The office of Mir Bakshi, the head of the military and responsible for the pay and welfare of soldiers, was established by the Mughal Emperor Akbar, not during the Khalji period.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
   • This statement is incorrect. Saint Nimbarka, the founder of the Nimbarka or Nimbarkacharya school of Vaishnavism, lived in the 13th to 14th centuries, while Akbar ruled during the late 16th century. They were not contemporaries.
2. Statement 2: Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
   • This statement is incorrect. Saint Kabir, a prominent 15th-century saint and poet, was not influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi, who lived in the late 16th and early 17th centuries. Kabir's influences were more directly related to earlier Sufi and Bhakti traditions.

Thus, neither of the statements is correct.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru – President, All India Liberal Federation:
   • This is correctly matched. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was a prominent leader of the All India Liberal Federation and served as its president.
2. K.C. Neogy – Member, The Constituent Assembly:
   • This is correctly matched. K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, which was responsible for drafting the Constitution of India.
3. P.C. Joshi – General Secretary, Communist Party of India:
   • This is correctly matched. P.C. Joshi served as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of India.

Thus, all the pairs are correctly matched.

The correct answer is:

(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

Explanation:

• Statement (a): Tansen was not a title given by Emperor Akbar. His original name was Ramtanu Pandey, and "Tansen" was a name he adopted later, which means "having a beautiful voice" in Persian. The title was not bestowed by Akbar but was a part of his renown as a great musician.
• Statement (b): Tansen did compose Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses. This is correct. His compositions included various Dhrupads, which often featured religious themes and devotional content.
• Statement (c): Tansen did compose songs in praise of his patrons. This is correct as well, and he was known for his compositions that were dedicated to his royal patrons, including Emperor Akbar.

Thus, the incorrect statement is (a).

The correct answer is:

(c) Jahangir

Explanation:

• Humayun was known for his patronage of illustrated manuscripts, but the shift towards individual portraiture occurred later.
• Akbar also supported illustrated manuscripts and had a significant role in developing Mughal painting, focusing on historical and literary themes.
• Jahangir is credited with shifting the emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to individual portraiture. His reign marked a period of great focus on portraiture and realistic representation in Mughal art.
• Shah Jahan continued the tradition of portraiture and was known for his architectural contributions, but the major shift towards individual portraits happened during Jahangir's reign.

Thus, Jahangir was the Mughal Emperor who emphasized individual portraiture over illustrated manuscripts.

The correct answer is:

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Explanation:

• Manas National Park is located in Assam and is characterized by subtropical and temperate forest zones.
• Namdapha National Park is located in Arunachal Pradesh and encompasses subtropical, temperate, and alpine zones, but not exclusively temperate alpine.
• Neora Valley National Park is situated in West Bengal and is known for its temperate and subtropical forests, but not exclusively temperate alpine.
• Valley of Flowers National Park is located in Uttarakhand and lies entirely within the temperate alpine zone, known for its high-altitude meadows and alpine flora.

Thus, Valley of Flowers National Park is the park that lies completely in the temperate alpine zone.

The correct answer is:

(c) NITI Aayog

Explanation:

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was set up by the Indian government under the NITI Aayog. AIM aims to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the country through various initiatives such as setting up Atal Tinkering Labs and Atal Incubation Centers.

The correct answer is:

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

Explanation:

• On 21st June, which is the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the Sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle. This phenomenon is known as the Midnight Sun, where the Sun remains visible at midnight.
• The Antarctic Circle does not experience this phenomenon on 21st June; rather, it is the time when the Antarctic region is in complete darkness due to the winter solstice.
• The Sun shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Cancer on 21st June, not the Equator or Tropic of Capricorn.
• On the Equator, the Sun is not directly overhead on 21st June; this occurs during the equinoxes.
• On the Tropic of Capricorn, the Sun shines vertically overhead on 21st December, not 21st June.

Thus, the correct statement is (a).

The correct answer is:

(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

Explanation:

• Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber were all domesticated in the 'New World' (the Americas) and introduced to the 'Old World' (Europe, Asia, and Africa).
• Tobacco was originally cultivated by indigenous peoples in the Americas and became widely known in Europe after the Columbian exchange.
• Cocoa (from which chocolate is derived) was also native to the Americas and was introduced to Europe after the Columbian exchange.
• Rubber was used by indigenous peoples in the Americas long before it was introduced to the Old World.
• Cotton and sugarcane were domesticated in the 'Old World' and introduced to the 'New World', not the other way around.
• Coffee and wheat were also domesticated in the Old World.

Thus, the group of plants domesticated in the New World and introduced into the Old World includes tobacco, cocoa, and rubber.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

1. Pandharpur – Chandrabhaga:
   • This pair is correctly matched. Pandharpur is situated on the banks of the Chandrabhaga River in Maharashtra.
2. Tiruchirappalli – Cauvery:
   • This pair is correctly matched. Tiruchirappalli (Trichy) is located on the banks of the Cauvery River in Tamil Nadu.
3. Hampi – Malaprabha:
   • This pair is incorrect. Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River, not the Malaprabha River. The Malaprabha River is in the vicinity of the Badami region.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1 and 2.

The correct answer is:

(b) price levels vary from State to State

Explanation:

Official poverty lines are adjusted for regional differences in price levels to reflect the cost of living in different states. Since the cost of living varies across states due to differences in price levels, the poverty line is set higher in states with higher living costs to accurately measure poverty. This adjustment helps to ensure that the poverty line reflects the relative purchasing power and cost of basic necessities in each region.

The correct answer is:

(d) Reducing the global warming

Explanation:

• Cirrus cloud thinning and the injection of sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere are proposed techniques related to geoengineering, specifically aimed at reducing global warming. These methods are intended to reflect more sunlight back into space and thus reduce the Earth's temperature.
  • Cirrus cloud thinning involves reducing the amount of high-altitude cirrus clouds that trap heat in the atmosphere, which could potentially help in cooling the Earth.
  • Injection of sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere is based on the idea that sulphate particles could reflect sunlight and thus cool the planet, mimicking the natural cooling effects of volcanic eruptions.

These techniques are part of experimental approaches to mitigating the impact of climate change.

The correct answer is:

(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Explanation:

• Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are technologies used in the conversion of waste materials into energy. These processes are part of the waste-to-energy technologies.
  • Pyrolysis involves heating organic waste in the absence of oxygen to break it down into gases, liquids, and char, which can be further processed to generate energy.
  • Plasma gasification uses high temperatures generated by plasma arcs to convert waste into synthetic gas (syngas) and slag. This method is used to manage waste and produce energy or useful byproducts.

These techniques are aimed at reducing waste and generating energy from non-recyclable materials.

The correct answer is:

(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

Explanation:

The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is located in the Western Ghats and includes the following protected areas:

• Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary
• Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary
• Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary
• Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

These sanctuaries and the tiger reserve together form the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, which is known for its rich biodiversity and ecological significance.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
   • This is correct. Certain species of turtles, such as the green sea turtle, are primarily herbivores and feed on sea grasses and algae.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
   • This is correct. Many fish species, such as parrotfish and surgeonfish, are herbivores and feed on algae and plant material.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
   • This is correct. Marine mammals like the manatee and dugong are herbivores and feed on aquatic plants.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
   • This is correct. While many snakes lay eggs (oviparous), some species, such as the boa constrictor and garter snake, are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young.

All four statements are correct.

The correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. Blue-finned Mahseer – Cauvery River:
   • This pair is correctly matched. The Blue-finned Mahseer (Tor remadevii) is found in the Cauvery River.
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin – Chambal River:
   • This pair is incorrect. The Irrawaddy Dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris) is found in the Mekong River and its delta, and in parts of Southeast Asia, but not in the Chambal River. In India, it is found in the Ganges and its tributaries.
3. Rusty-spotted Cat – Eastern Ghats:
   • This pair is correctly matched. The Rusty-spotted Cat (Prionailurus rubiginosus) is naturally found in the forests of the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats of India.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1 and 3.

The correct answer is:

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

Explanation:

Microbeads are tiny plastic particles that are often found in personal care products like exfoliating scrubs and toothpastes. When these products are washed off, the microbeads enter the waterways and can cause significant environmental problems.

• Harmful to marine ecosystems: Microbeads are problematic because they are small enough to be ingested by marine organisms, including fish and shellfish. This can lead to physical harm and potential toxic effects, as the microbeads can absorb harmful chemicals from the water. This can ultimately affect the entire marine food chain and ecosystem.

The other options are not correct:

• (b) Microbeads are not known to cause skin cancer in children. The primary concern is their environmental impact.
• (c) Microbeads are not typically absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
• (d) Microbeads are not used as food adulterants; they are found in cosmetic and personal care products.

The correct answer is:

(d) textile fibre

Explanation:

Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) has gained attention for its use as a sustainable source of textile fibre. The fibers from this plant are used in traditional textile production, especially in regions of the Himalayas. They are valued for their durability and eco-friendliness compared to synthetic fibers.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Satellite images and remote sensing data are widely used for various environmental and agricultural measurements, including:

1. Chlorophyll content in vegetation: Remote sensing can estimate chlorophyll content by analyzing the reflectance of light from vegetation. This helps in assessing plant health and productivity.
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies: Remote sensing can be used to estimate greenhouse gas emissions, such as methane, by monitoring rice paddies and analyzing related data.
3. Land surface temperatures: Satellites provide data on land surface temperatures by measuring infrared radiation emitted from the Earth's surface.

Therefore, remote sensing data is used for all the mentioned applications.

The correct answer is:

(c) 3-2-4-1

Explanation:

In terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of the state, the ascending order of the states is as follows:

1. Maharashtra - The forest cover in Maharashtra is relatively lower compared to the other states listed.
2. Madhya Pradesh - Madhya Pradesh has a higher percentage of forest cover compared to Maharashtra but is less than Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
3. Odisha - Odisha has a higher percentage of forest cover compared to Madhya Pradesh.
4. Chhattisgarh - Chhattisgarh has the highest percentage of forest cover among the listed states.

Thus, the ascending order of forest cover percentage is Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh, which corresponds to option (c) 3-2-4-1.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits:
   • This is correct. Methane hydrates are stable under low temperatures and high pressures. As global temperatures rise, these conditions may be disrupted, potentially releasing methane gas into the atmosphere.
2. Large deposits of methane hydrate are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor:
   • This is correct. Significant deposits of methane hydrate are found in the Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor, especially in deep-sea sediments.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two:
   • This is correct. Methane is a potent greenhouse gas, and in the atmosphere, it is eventually oxidized to carbon dioxide and water over a period of about a decade or two.

All three statements are correct regarding methane hydrate deposits.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Burning of crop or biomass residue releases a variety of pollutants into the atmosphere, including:

1. Carbon monoxide (CO):
   • Carbon monoxide is released as a byproduct of incomplete combustion of organic matter.
2. Methane (CH₄):
   • Methane can be released during the burning of biomass, as it is a byproduct of the decomposition of organic material.
3. Ozone (O₃):
   • Ozone is not directly emitted from burning biomass, but the precursors to ground-level ozone, such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs), can be released, which contribute to the formation of ozone in the atmosphere.
4. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂):
   • Sulphur dioxide is released if the biomass contains sulfur compounds, though it is more commonly associated with burning fossil fuels.

Thus, all four substances—carbon monoxide, methane, ozone, and sulphur dioxide—can be released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop or biomass residue.

The correct answer is:

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

1. Adriatic Sea – Albania:
   • This is correctly matched. Albania borders the Adriatic Sea to its west.
2. Black Sea – Croatia:
   • This is incorrect. Croatia does not border the Black Sea; it borders the Adriatic Sea. Countries bordering the Black Sea include Turkey, Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia.
3. Caspian Sea – Kazakhstan:
   • This is correctly matched. Kazakhstan borders the Caspian Sea to its west.
4. Mediterranean Sea – Morocco:
   • This is correctly matched. Morocco borders the Mediterranean Sea to its north.
5. Red Sea – Syria:
   • This is incorrect. Syria does not border the Red Sea; it borders the Mediterranean Sea. Countries bordering the Red Sea include Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti, Saudi Arabia, and Yemen.

Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4.

The correct answer is:

(b) India

Explanation:

In recent years, India has been the largest exporter of rice globally. It has consistently led the world in rice exports, surpassing other major rice-exporting countries such as Vietnam and Thailand.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

1. Bandarpunch – Yamuna:
   • This is correctly matched. The Bandarpunch Glacier is a source of the Yamuna River.
2. Bara Shigri – Chenab:
   • This is correctly matched. The Bara Shigri Glacier is a source of the Chenab River.
3. Milam – Mandakini:
   • This is incorrect. The Milam Glacier is a source of the Pindar River, not the Mandakini. The Mandakini River originates from the Chaukhamba Glacier.
4. Siachen – Nubra:
   • This is correctly matched. The Siachen Glacier feeds the Nubra River.
5. Zemu – Manas:
   • This is incorrect. The Zemu Glacier is a source of the Teesta River, not the Manas. The Manas River originates from the Manas National Park area.

Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 4.

The correct answer is:

(a) pesticides in agriculture

Explanation:

Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all chemicals used as pesticides in agriculture. These chemicals are used to control pests and insects that affect crops. However, they are viewed with apprehension due to their potential harmful effects on human health and the environment.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India:
   • This statement is incorrect. The Ramsar Convention encourages the protection and conservation of designated wetlands, but it does not mandate the protection of all wetlands within a country. The Convention focuses on wetlands of international importance.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention:
   • This statement is correct. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were indeed framed by the Government of India to align with the principles and recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority:
   • This statement is correct. The 2010 Rules do cover the catchment areas or drainage regions of wetlands, which are essential for their protection and management.

Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment:
   • This is correct. Agricultural soils can release nitrogen oxides (NOx) as a result of microbial processes, especially in fertilized soils.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment:
   • This is correct. Cattle and other livestock release ammonia (NH₃) through their waste products, which contributes to air and soil pollution.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment:
   • This is correct. The poultry industry contributes to the release of various reactive nitrogen compounds, including ammonia and nitrates, which can impact the environment.

All three statements accurately describe sources of nitrogen compounds in the environment.

The correct answer is:

(d) Water reservoirs

Explanation:

Aliyar, Isapur, and Kangsabati are all known for their water reservoirs. These reservoirs are used for irrigation, drinking water supply, and sometimes for hydroelectric power generation.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions:
   • This statement is not entirely accurate. While H-CNG does help in reducing carbon monoxide emissions, its main advantages include reducing carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. The statement exaggerates the impact by suggesting complete elimination.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions:
   • This statement is correct. H-CNG can lead to reductions in carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions compared to pure CNG.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses:
   • This statement is correct. Hydrogen can be blended with CNG in a proportion of up to 20% by volume to create H-CNG.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG:
   • This statement is incorrect. H-CNG is generally more expensive than CNG due to the cost of producing and storing hydrogen.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review:
   • This statement is incorrect. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, did not introduce any provision that places the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. It mainly dealt with the curtailment of the powers of the President during a national emergency and other related provisions.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary:
   • This statement is correct. The Supreme Court of India, in the case of Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (1993), struck down the 99th Amendment, which aimed to change the method of appointing judges to the higher judiciary. The Court held that the amendment violated the independence of the judiciary as it altered the process of judicial appointments, affecting the separation of powers.

Thus, only the second statement is correct.

The correct answer is:

(c) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968:
   • This statement is incorrect. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to reject a motion for impeachment if it does not meet the required standards or procedures. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, provides the framework for the inquiry into allegations of misconduct but does not prevent the Speaker from rejecting a motion.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India:
   • This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India provides the grounds for impeachment (incapacity and proved misbehaviour) but does not detail what constitutes them. The specifics are elaborated in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968:
   • This statement is correct. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, provides the detailed procedure for the impeachment of Supreme Court judges.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting:
   • This statement is correct. For an impeachment motion to pass, it requires the support of a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament, and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting must support it.

Thus, statements 3 and 4 are correct.

The correct answer is:

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation:

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India by the First Amendment Act of 1951 during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. The purpose of the Ninth Schedule was to protect certain laws from judicial review and challenges on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi:
   • This statement is correct. The coal sector in India was nationalized in 1973 during Indira Gandhi's tenure as Prime Minister. This move aimed to control and streamline coal production and distribution.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis:
   • This statement is incorrect. Coal blocks were previously allocated through a discretionary process, but since the introduction of the coal block allocation policy in 2014, they are allocated through a competitive bidding process, not on a lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production:
   • This statement is incorrect. Despite efforts to increase domestic coal production, India still imports a significant amount of coal to meet its energy needs due to domestic production not being sufficient to fully meet the demand.

Thus, only the first statement is correct.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’:
   • This statement is correct. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was enacted to specify the posts that are not considered as ‘Office of Profit’, thereby exempting them from disqualification under Article 102 of the Constitution.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times:
   • This statement is correct. The Act has indeed been amended multiple times to update and clarify the list of exempted posts.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India:
   • This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not provide a specific definition for ‘Office of Profit’. The term is not clearly defined and has been subject to judicial interpretation to determine what constitutes an ‘Office of Profit’.

The correct answer is:

(b) Fifth Schedule

Explanation:

• Fifth Schedule: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes. It provides safeguards for the protection of tribal areas and their lands. If there is a transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining or other purposes that contravenes the provisions related to the protection of tribal interests under this schedule, it can be declared null and void.

The other schedules mentioned do not pertain to the protection of tribal land in the same context:

• Third Schedule: Contains forms of oaths and affirmations.
• Ninth Schedule: Contains laws that are exempt from judicial review on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.
• Twelfth Schedule: Lists the functions and responsibilities of the municipalities.

The correct answer is:

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.

Explanation:

Article 142 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power to pass any order or decree necessary for doing complete justice in any case or matter before it. This power is wide and not limited by existing laws made by Parliament, meaning that the Supreme Court can use its discretion to ensure justice is served even if it requires actions beyond ordinary legal constraints.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
   This is correct. The Governor's address is an important tradition where the Governor outlines the policies and programs of the state government for the coming year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
   This is not entirely correct. Each State Legislature has its own set of rules and procedures. While state legislatures may refer to the rules of the Lok Sabha for guidance, they are not bound to follow them automatically.

The correct answer is:

(c) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
   This is incorrect. The UNCAC does not have a protocol on smuggling migrants; this is covered under a different convention, specifically the UN Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea, and Air, which is part of the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC).
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
   This is correct. The UNCAC is the first global, legally binding instrument designed to address corruption comprehensively at the international level.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
   This is incorrect. While the UNTOC does deal with asset recovery, it does not have a specific chapter solely dedicated to returning assets. The asset recovery provisions are covered under the UNCAC, not UNTOC.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
   This is correct. UNODC provides assistance to countries in implementing both the UNCAC and UNTOC conventions.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
   This is incorrect. Although there have been amendments to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, giving more rights to forest dwellers, the right to fell bamboos is still subject to various regulations and is not universally granted to all forest dwellers.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
   This is correct. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is classified as a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
   This is correct. The Act recognizes the rights of forest dwellers over minor forest produce, which includes the right to collect, use, and sell such produce.

The correct answer is:

(b) Article 21

Explanation:

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to marry a person of one's choice. This right is protected under the broader interpretation of personal liberty, ensuring individuals can make decisions about their personal relationships.

The correct answer is:

(c) 3 only

Explanation:

1. Biological Process Patents: According to the Indian Patents Act, biological processes for the production of plants and animals are not patentable. This includes processes for creating seeds.
2. Intellectual Property Appellate Board: India does have an Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) which was established to handle appeals related to intellectual property matters.
3. Plant Varieties: Plant varieties are not eligible for patents in India. Instead, India has a separate system under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001, which provides protection to plant varieties.

The correct answer is:

(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Public Participation: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does empower the Government of India to involve the public in environmental protection processes. It allows the government to set procedures and guidelines for public participation in environmental matters.
2. Standards for Emissions: The Act also authorizes the government to lay down standards for the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.

The correct answer is:

(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Fixed-Term Employment and Layoffs: The amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 2018, allows for the easier implementation of fixed-term employment contracts, which can make it easier for firms to lay off workers without the same obligations as permanent employees.
2. No Notice for Temporary Workmen: The amendment stipulates that for temporary workers, no notice of termination is required, which aligns with the statement about the rules.

Both statements accurately reflect aspects of the amendments made in 2018.

The correct answer is:

(b) Lead Bank Scheme

Explanation:

The Service Area Approach was introduced under the Lead Bank Scheme in India. This approach aimed to allocate specific service areas to banks to ensure comprehensive coverage and development of rural areas. It focused on improving the accessibility of banking services and ensuring that banks served all regions effectively.

he correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. Sand as a Minor Mineral: Sand is indeed classified as a minor mineral under Indian law.
2. Powers of State and Central Governments: The Central Government has the power to frame rules for the management of minor minerals, but the State Governments are responsible for granting mining leases and implementing these rules.
3. Rules to Prevent Illegal Mining: State Governments have the authority to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect as the Central Government is responsible for formulating rules, while the State Governments handle the grant of leases.

The correct answer is:

(b) Deposits

Explanation:

Deposits are liabilities for a commercial bank, not assets. They represent money that the bank owes to its depositors. In contrast:

• Advances are loans or credit given by the bank and are considered assets.
• Investments include securities and bonds held by the bank, which are assets.
• Money at call and short notice refers to funds the bank can quickly access or provide, and it is considered an asset.

The correct answer is:

(b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector: This contributes to reducing the risk of a currency crisis as it brings in foreign exchange, which strengthens the country's reserves and stabilizes the currency.
2. Remittances from Indians abroad: This also contributes positively by increasing foreign currency inflows, thus bolstering reserves and reducing the risk of a currency crisis.

Increasing government expenditure (option 2) does not directly contribute to reducing the risk of a currency crisis. In fact, if not managed carefully, increased government expenditure could lead to higher fiscal deficits and inflation, which might exacerbate the risk of a currency crisis.

The correct answer is:

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

Explanation:

The Sarkaria Commission, which was established in 1983, reviewed the role and functioning of the Governor in the Indian federal structure and recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State, detached from local politics, and should not have recent political links. This was part of its broader recommendations to ensure the impartiality and effectiveness of the gubernatorial office.

The correct answer is:

(d) Participatory Note

Explanation:

Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are financial instruments used by investors and hedge funds to invest in Indian stock markets without registering directly with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). They are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors, allowing them to invest in Indian securities indirectly.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) exists at both National and State levels as per the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
2. While the involvement of local communities and stakeholders is encouraged and facilitated in compensatory afforestation programs, their participation is not explicitly mandated by law under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) focused on the development of heavy industries, capital goods, and basic industries as a strategy for economic growth.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power: The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974) aimed to address issues of economic inequality and focused on redistribution of wealth and development of the rural economy.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan: The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-1979) did not explicitly include the financial sector as an integral part of the Plan; it primarily focused on agricultural and rural development, poverty alleviation, and employment.

Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not accurate.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations: This is correct. As of 2024, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) has over 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB: This is incorrect. While India is a significant shareholder, China is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia: This is incorrect. AIIB has members from both within and outside Asia, including countries from Europe, Africa, and the Americas.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is:

(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Explanation:

The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) signed by Indian banks and financial institutions was designed to expedite the resolution process for stressed assets, specifically those involving consortium lending where the exposure is Rs 50 crore or more. The agreement helps streamline the decision-making process among creditors and facilitates quicker restructuring or recovery actions.

The correct answer is:

(a) Banks Board Bureau

Explanation:

The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) is responsible for the selection and appointment of Chairpersons and Managing Directors of public sector banks. The BBB is an autonomous body that works under the Ministry of Finance to ensure that appointments are made based on merit and with a view towards enhancing the effectiveness of public sector banks.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. Incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is not the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was set up earlier.
2. Correct: One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas by regulating the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing, and sale of petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas, excluding production.
3. Correct: Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB can be made before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity, as per the relevant statutes.

The correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. Incorrect: LTE (Long-Term Evolution) is commonly marketed as 4G, not 3G. VoLTE (Voice over LTE) is an enhancement of LTE, allowing for high-quality voice calls over the 4G network.
2. Incorrect: LTE is not a data-only technology; it supports both data and voice services, with VoLTE specifically enabling voice calls over the LTE network. VoLTE is not a voice-only technology; it is an extension of LTE to provide voice services alongside data on the same network.

The correct answer is:

(a) Maintenance of law and order

Explanation:

The World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index' includes sub-indices like Paying Taxes, Registering Property, and Dealing with Construction Permits. However, "Maintenance of law and order" is not a sub-index of this index.

The correct answer is:

(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

Explanation:

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) was introduced as a key concept in India's e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. It mandates producers to take responsibility for the end-of-life disposal of their products, particularly electronics, in an environmentally responsible manner.

The correct answer is:

(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost

Explanation:

The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India (FCI) includes the Minimum Support Price (MSP) and any bonus paid to farmers, as well as procurement incidentals (such as handling, storage, and transport costs) and the distribution cost associated with delivering the food grains through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

The correct answer is:

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Explanation:

Social capital refers to the networks, relationships, and norms of trust and reciprocity that enable individuals and groups to work together effectively in a society. It is characterized by the level of mutual trust, social cohesion, and shared values within a community or society. Thus, the level of mutual trust and harmony in society would be considered part of its social capital.

The correct answer is:

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Explanation:

Social capital refers to the networks, relationships, and norms of trust and reciprocity that enable individuals and groups to work together effectively in a society. It is characterized by the level of mutual trust, social cohesion, and shared values within a community or society. Thus, the level of mutual trust and harmony in society would be considered part of its social capital.

The correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. The statement "No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid" is incorrect. High Courts in India do have the power to declare central laws as unconstitutional if they find that such laws violate the provisions of the Constitution. This power is derived from Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
2. The statement "An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India" is also incorrect. The Supreme Court has the power to review and strike down constitutional amendments if they violate the "basic structure" of the Constitution, as established by the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).

Therefore, neither of the statements is correct.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. The statement "Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries" is correct. PPP is a method used to calculate an alternative exchange rate between the currencies of two countries based on the relative cost of a basket of goods and services.
2. The statement "In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world" is incorrect. India has often been ranked higher than sixth in terms of GDP measured by PPP. As of recent data (around 2019), India was typically ranked third, after the United States and China.

Therefore, only the first statement is correct.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest: This is correct. Rice is the most widely cultivated Kharif crop in India.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds: This is incorrect. The area under oilseeds, particularly soybeans and groundnuts, generally surpasses that of jowar (sorghum).
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane: This is correct. Cotton generally occupies more area compared to sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased: This is incorrect. The area under sugarcane has not shown a steady decrease; it has fluctuated over the years and sometimes even increased.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

(d) Vegetable oils

Explanation:

Among the listed agricultural commodities, vegetable oils account for the highest value of imports by India. India is one of the largest importers of vegetable oils due to its high domestic consumption and insufficient domestic production to meet the demand. Pulses and fresh fruits are also significant imports, but vegetable oils generally represent a higher import value.

(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy

Explanation:

When the Indian rupee is sliding, the government and RBI generally take measures to stabilize it. Here’s why the options are evaluated as follows:

• (a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports: This is a common measure to reduce the trade deficit and support the currency by decreasing demand for foreign currency and increasing foreign exchange earnings.
• (b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds: Issuing Masala Bonds can help attract foreign investment in rupees, supporting the currency.
• (c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing: This could help attract more foreign capital, which can support the rupee by increasing foreign currency inflows.
• (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy: Expansionary monetary policy typically involves lowering interest rates and increasing money supply, which can put additional pressure on the currency by potentially increasing inflation and reducing the attractiveness of the currency for foreign investors.

Therefore, an expansionary monetary policy is not a likely measure to stop the slide of the rupee and is, in fact, more likely to exacerbate the problem.

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India's directives regarding the storage of payment system data primarily focus on ensuring that:

• (1) Entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India: This statement is correct. The RBI mandates that payment system data should be stored within India to enhance data security and sovereignty.
• (2) Systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises: This statement is incorrect. The RBI's directive does not specify that the systems must be owned and operated by public sector enterprises. The requirement is about data storage location, not ownership or operation specifics.
• (3) They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year: This statement is incorrect. The RBI does not require submission of audit reports to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The focus is on data storage compliance rather than audit reporting to the CAG.

Thus, only the first statement correctly represents the RBI's directive.

(c) The European Union

Explanation:

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data protection law that was adopted by the European Union in April 2016. It came into effect on May 25, 2018, and sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the EU.

(b) Russia

Explanation:

India and Russia signed the "Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field" to enhance collaboration in the nuclear sector.

(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

Explanation:

The money multiplier effect increases when the population has a higher propensity to deposit money in banks rather than holding it as cash. This is because an increase in banking deposits allows banks to lend out a larger portion of those deposits, thereby expanding the money supply. Conversely, an increase in the cash reserve ratio or the statutory liquidity ratio would reduce the money multiplier by restricting the amount of money banks can lend out.

(b) 3 and 4

Explanation:

1. Incorrect: In Augmented Reality (AR), virtual elements are overlaid on the real world, rather than creating a completely simulated environment. The physical world is not shut out; instead, AR enhances the real-world environment with digital information.
2. Incorrect: In Virtual Reality (VR), a simulated environment is created, and users are fully immersed in it. This is different from projecting computer-generated images onto real-life objects, which is more characteristic of AR.
3. Correct: AR allows individuals to be present in the real world while enhancing their experience with digital elements. This can be done through the camera of a smartphone or PC, adding layers of information to the real environment.
4. Correct: VR provides a complete immersion experience by creating a simulated environment that entirely replaces the real world.

(b) an early human species

Explanation:

The term "Denisovan" refers to an early human species known as the Denisovans, which are an extinct species of archaic humans closely related to Neanderthals. Fossils and genetic evidence of Denisovans have been found in the Denisova Cave in Siberia, Russia. They are not related to dinosaurs, a cave system in India, or a geological period.

(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

Explanation:

While segments of DNA can be manipulated and combined in various ways, creating fully functional chromosomes by joining segments from different species is not currently a practical or established scientific method. Scientists can create functional DNA segments and manipulate DNA within species, and they can also make DNA replicate outside of living cells in a laboratory setting. Cells from plants and animals can also be cultured and made to undergo cell division in laboratory conditions.

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because a digital signature itself does not identify the certifying authority; rather, it is used to authenticate the identity of the signer and ensure that the document has not been altered.
• Statement 2 is correct as digital signatures are used to authenticate the identity of an individual and are used in various online transactions and communications.
• Statement 3 is correct because digital signatures are a cryptographic method to ensure that an electronic document has not been altered since it was signed, thus verifying the integrity and origin of the document.

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Location identification of a person: Wearable devices like smartwatches and fitness trackers can use GPS to track and identify a person’s location.
• Sleep monitoring of a person: Many wearables have sensors that monitor sleep patterns, including the duration and quality of sleep.
• Assisting the hearing impaired person: Wearable devices such as hearing aids help individuals with hearing impairments by amplifying sound.

Wearable technology encompasses devices that perform a wide range of functions including those listed.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

• Gene silencing therapies: RNA interference (RNAi) is a powerful tool for gene silencing, allowing researchers to reduce or eliminate the expression of specific genes, which can be useful for developing targeted therapies.
• Therapies for cancer: RNAi can be used to target and silence genes involved in cancer, potentially leading to new treatments for various types of cancer.
• Crop plants resistant to viral pathogens: RNAi technology is also employed in agriculture to develop genetically modified crops that can resist viral infections by targeting and silencing the genes of the pathogens.

However, RNAi is not typically used for hormone replacement therapies.

(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.

Explanation:

The observation of the merger of giant black holes, especially billions of light-years away, is significant because it leads to the detection of gravitational waves. These waves are ripples in spacetime predicted by Einstein's theory of general relativity, and their detection confirms the presence of such phenomena and provides insights into the behavior of black holes and the nature of spacetime.

(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

Explanation:

Cas9 is a protein associated with the CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing technology. It acts as a molecular scissors that can cut DNA at specific locations, allowing scientists to add, remove, or alter sections of the DNA sequence. This technology is widely used in genetic research and has applications in medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.

(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

Explanation:

Hepatitis B has an effective vaccine available, unlike Hepatitis C. Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are both serious viral infections that affect the liver, but Hepatitis B can be prevented through vaccination. Hepatitis C, on the other hand, does not have a vaccine, though treatments are available.