Let's analyze each of the statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
   • The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952. The Swatantra Party was not established until 1959. Therefore, it could not have been the single largest party in the opposition during the first Lok Sabha.
   • This statement is incorrect.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
   • This is true. The position of "Leader of the Opposition" was first officially recognized in 1969. Dr. Ram Subhag Singh of the Congress (O) became the first person to be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
   • This statement is correct.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
   • This statement is incorrect. According to the 1977 rules, for a leader to be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the house. This means, in a 545-member house, the minimum requirement is 55 members, not 75.
   • This statement is incorrect.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

To answer this question, let's consider the functions of the given leaf modifications in desert areas:

1. Hard and waxy leaves:
   • Hard and waxy leaves help in reducing water loss by minimizing the transpiration rate. The waxy coating (cuticle) acts as a barrier to water evaporation.
   • This modification occurs in desert areas.
2. Tiny leaves:
   • Tiny leaves have a smaller surface area, which reduces the amount of water lost through transpiration.
   • This modification occurs in desert areas.
3. Thorns instead of leaves:
   • In many desert plants, such as cacti, leaves are modified into thorns. This reduces the surface area for transpiration and protects the plant from herbivores. Photosynthesis is carried out by the stem, which is often fleshy and green.
   • This modification occurs in desert areas.

Conclusion:

All the listed modifications—hard and waxy leaves, tiny leaves, and thorns instead of leaves—are adaptations that help plants survive in desert areas by reducing water loss.

The correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Let's analyze each of the statements based on the information from the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households":

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
   • This statement is incorrect. According to the NSSO 70th Round survey, West Bengal, not Rajasthan, had the highest percentage of agricultural households among rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
   • This statement is also incorrect. The survey data indicates that the proportion of agricultural households belonging to OBCs was not as high as 60%. The exact figure was significantly lower.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
   • This statement is correct. In Kerala, a significant percentage of agricultural households reported that they received the majority of their income from non-agricultural sources.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Let's evaluate each statement to determine its accuracy:

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
   • This statement is incorrect. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was indeed established by an Act of Parliament, specifically the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. However, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was not created by an executive order; it was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Therefore, both NGT and CPCB were established by Acts of Parliament.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
   • This statement is correct. The NGT's primary role is to provide a specialized forum for the adjudication of environmental disputes, thereby reducing the burden on higher courts. On the other hand, the CPCB is tasked with promoting the cleanliness of streams, wells, and improving air quality in India. These are distinct functions of the NGT and CPCB.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Let's examine each statement regarding the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
   • This statement is correct. The Parliament of India has the authority to place laws in the Ninth Schedule through constitutional amendments. The Ninth Schedule was created by the First Amendment in 1951 to protect laws related to land reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system from being challenged in courts.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
   • This statement is incorrect. Initially, laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were immune from judicial review. However, in the landmark judgment of I.R. Coelho vs. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) are subject to judicial review. The court can examine whether these laws violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

The term "Merchant Discount Rate" (MDR) refers to:

(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

Explanation:

• Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee that a merchant has to pay to a bank or payment service provider when accepting payments from customers via credit or debit cards. This fee is typically a percentage of the transaction amount and covers the cost of handling the payment, fraud protection, and other related services.

Let's analyze each statement about the consequences of a country becoming a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG):

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
   • This statement is generally correct. Membership in the NSG allows a country to access and benefit from the latest nuclear technologies, as the NSG is a group of countries that seeks to ensure that nuclear trade and technology transfers do not contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Members benefit from sharing and receiving advanced nuclear technologies under strict non-proliferation conditions.
2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".
   • This statement is incorrect. Membership in the NSG does not automatically confer membership in the NPT. The NSG and the NPT are separate entities. The NPT is a treaty aimed at preventing the spread of nuclear weapons and promoting peaceful uses of nuclear energy, while the NSG is a group of countries that controls the export of nuclear materials and technologies. A country can be a member of the NSG without being a party to the NPT, and vice versa.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act and related financial regulations:

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
   • This statement is correct. The FRBM Review Committee, headed by N.K. Singh, indeed recommended that the combined debt-to-GDP ratio should be 60% by 2023, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
   • This statement is incorrect. The domestic liabilities of the Central Government and State Governments have fluctuated over time, but the figures provided here are not accurate. Typically, the combined debt-to-GDP ratio includes both Central and State Government liabilities, and the proportions can vary based on the latest fiscal data.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
   • This statement is correct. According to Article 293 of the Indian Constitution, a state needs the consent of the Central Government to raise any loan if it has outstanding liabilities to the Central Government.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Let's evaluate each statement related to the import and customs duty on edible oils:

1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
   • This statement is generally correct. India has been a net importer of edible oils for several years due to insufficient domestic production to meet the demand. Imported edible oils often exceed domestic production.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
   • This statement is incorrect. While the government may adjust customs duties on edible oils periodically, it does not completely waive customs duties on all imported edible oils. Duties are often imposed to protect domestic producers and regulate imports.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

The person described in the question is:

(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation:

• Biographies: Lala Lajpat Rai wrote biographies of figures such as Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna.
• Stay in America: He spent some time in the United States.
• Central Assembly: He was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly.

The other options do not fit all these criteria as closely as Lala Lajpat Rai.

Let's examine each statement regarding the Aadhaar card:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Aadhaar card is primarily used as a proof of identity and address, but it is not a proof of citizenship or domicile. It does not indicate citizenship status or serve as evidence of a person’s place of residence.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Aadhaar number can be deactivated or omitted under certain conditions. For example, if it is found that the Aadhaar was issued based on incorrect information or if it is reported as fraudulently used, the Aadhaar number can be deactivated.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Let's analyze the impact of human activities on each of the listed water bodies:

1. Aral Sea:
   • The Aral Sea has experienced significant shrinkage and drying up in the recent past due to human activities, particularly due to the diversion of its inflowing rivers for irrigation. This has led to a dramatic reduction in its size.
2. Black Sea:
   • The Black Sea has not shrunk or dried up significantly due to human activities in recent times. It faces pollution and environmental issues, but its overall size has not drastically reduced.
3. Lake Baikal:
   • Lake Baikal has not dried up or shrunk immensely. It is the world's deepest and oldest freshwater lake, and while it faces environmental challenges, it has not experienced significant shrinkage.

Conclusion:

• The Aral Sea (1) has shrunk immensely due to human activities.
• The Black Sea (2) and Lake Baikal (3) have not experienced similar levels of shrinkage or drying up.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

The "Rule of Law Index" is released by:

(d) World Justice Project

Explanation:

• The World Justice Project publishes the Rule of Law Index, which measures the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law, including factors such as the effectiveness of legal frameworks, transparency, and access to justice.

The entity that links all the ATMs in India is:

(c) National Payments Corporation of India

Explanation:

• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operates the National Financial Switch (NFS), which connects all ATMs across the country, facilitating seamless interbank transactions.

Let's analyze each statement about the Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR):

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
   • This statement is correct. CAR is a measure of a bank's financial strength and is the ratio of a bank's capital to its risk-weighted assets. It ensures that banks have enough capital to absorb losses and protect depositors if they incur losses.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
   • This statement is incorrect. CAR is not decided by individual banks. Instead, it is regulated by financial authorities, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in India, which sets the minimum CAR requirements that all banks must adhere to.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

The countries where lakhs of people have recently suffered from severe famine, acute malnutrition, or starvation caused by war and ethnic conflicts are:

(d) Yemen and South Sudan

Explanation:

• Yemen has been experiencing a severe humanitarian crisis due to ongoing conflict and war, leading to widespread famine and acute malnutrition.
• South Sudan has also faced a critical food security situation due to civil conflict, leading to severe famine conditions and high levels of malnutrition.

These crises have resulted in significant loss of life and suffering due to starvation and related issues.

Let's examine the statements regarding Wood's Dispatch of 1854:

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
   • This statement is correct. Wood's Dispatch introduced the Grants-in-Aid system, which provided financial support to educational institutions run by private entities, provided they met certain conditions.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
   • This statement is correct. Wood's Dispatch recommended the establishment of universities in major cities like Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras, which led to the foundation of universities in these locations.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
   • This statement is partially correct. Wood's Dispatch advocated for the use of English as the medium of instruction in higher education and emphasized the importance of English in the education system, but it did not recommend English as the sole medium of instruction at all levels. It recognized the need for vernacular languages at the primary and secondary levels.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is partially correct but not entirely accurate in its broadness.

Given the specifics of each statement, the correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only.

The Parliamentary Committee that scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive is:

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Explanation:

• The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines the exercise of delegated powers by the executive and ensures that such powers are being exercised within the scope of the delegation provided by Parliament. This committee reviews all subordinate legislation to ensure compliance with legal and procedural norms.

Let's analyze each statement related to the Right to Education (RTE) Act and teacher education in India:

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
   • This statement is incorrect. The minimum qualifications for appointment as a teacher are laid down by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), not by the State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
   • This statement is correct. The RTE Act mandates that a candidate must pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET), which is conducted in accordance with the guidelines set by the NCTE, to be eligible to teach primary classes.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
   • This statement is incorrect. Most teacher education institutions in India are privately managed, and a significant number are not directly under the control of State Governments.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Let's examine each pair related to the traditions and their respective states:

1. Chapchar Kut Festival — Mizoram
   • This pair is correct. The Chapchar Kut Festival is a traditional festival celebrated in Mizoram, marking the arrival of spring.
2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
   • This pair is correct. The Khongjom Parba is a traditional ballad from Manipur that commemorates the bravery of the Manipuri soldiers in the Anglo-Manipur War of 1891.
3. Thang-Ta Dance — Sikkim
   • This pair is incorrect. Thang-Ta is a traditional martial art and dance form from Manipur, not Sikkim.

Conclusion:

• Pairs 1 and 2 are correct.
• Pair 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (b) 1 and 2.

Let's examine each statement:

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
   • This statement is correct. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 consolidated various food laws, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, to establish a more comprehensive and modern framework for food safety and standards.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
   • This statement is incorrect. The FSSAI is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, but it is not under the direct charge of the Director General of Health Services. The FSSAI is headed by a Chairperson and a Chief Executive Officer.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

The term "two-state solution" is most commonly mentioned in the context of:

(b) Israel

Explanation:

• The "two-state solution" refers to the proposed solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, which envisions an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel, living peacefully side by side. This concept has been a central issue in discussions of peace in the Middle East.

Let's examine each statement related to the National Food Security Act, 2013:

1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains.
   • This statement is incorrect. The National Food Security Act, 2013, covers up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). It is not limited to just BPL families; it includes both BPL and certain non-BPL families.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
   • This statement is correct. The Act mandates that the eldest woman in the household, who is 18 years or older, should be considered the head of the household for issuing ration cards.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
   • This statement is incorrect. The National Food Security Act provides pregnant women and lactating mothers with a 'take-home ration' or a cash benefit, but the specific caloric content mentioned (1600 calories) is not accurate. The Act mandates nutritional support, but the detailed caloric content is determined by guidelines and may vary.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with its obligations to the:

(d) WTO (World Trade Organization)

Explanation:

• The Geographical Indications (GI) Act was enacted to fulfill India's commitments under the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), which is a part of the World Trade Organization (WTO) agreements. The TRIPS Agreement requires member countries to provide protection for GIs to prevent misuse or misrepresentation of goods from specific geographic regions.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
   • This statement is incorrect. State Governments in India do have the power to auction non-coal mines (such as iron ore, bauxite, limestone, etc.) under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
   • This statement is incorrect. Jharkhand has a gold mine in the region of Kolar, and Andhra Pradesh has gold mines as well, such as in the Ramagiri belt.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
   • This statement is correct. Rajasthan does have iron ore deposits, though it is not among the leading states in terms of iron ore production.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is (d) 3 only.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
   • This statement is correct. The BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app is based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and allows users to transfer money to anyone who has a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
   • This statement is incorrect. Typically, a chip-PIN debit card uses two factors of authentication: the physical card (something you have) and the PIN (something you know). Similarly, the BHIM app also uses two factors of authentication: the mobile device (something you have) and the UPI PIN (something you know). Neither the chip-PIN debit card nor the BHIM app uses four factors of authentication.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

To answer which city lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi, we need to compare the longitudes of each city:

• Delhi: Approximately 77.1°E
• Bengaluru: Approximately 77.6°E
• Hyderabad: Approximately 78.5°E
• Nagpur: Approximately 79.1°E
• Pune: Approximately 73.9°E

Among these cities, Bengaluru is the closest in terms of longitude to Delhi.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is (a) Bengaluru.

International Labour Organization's (ILO) Conventions 138 and 182 are related to:

(a) Child labour

Explanation:

• Convention 138 deals with the minimum age for admission to employment and work. It sets the minimum age for employment at 15 years (or 14 in some developing countries).
• Convention 182 focuses on the worst forms of child labour, including slavery, forced labor, child trafficking, and the use of children in armed conflict, prostitution, and drug trafficking.

These conventions aim to eliminate child labor and protect children from exploitation.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the election of the President of India:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
   • This statement is correct. The value of the vote of each Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) is determined based on the population of the state and the number of seats in the legislative assembly. This value is calculated using the formula set by the Election Commission of India.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
   • This statement is incorrect. The value of the vote of each MP (both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) is the same. The value of votes for MPs and MLAs is calculated based on a specific formula, and it is not differentiated between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MPs.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

In the Indian context, ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) has the following implication:

(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

Explanation:

• The Additional Protocol is an agreement that enhances the IAEA's ability to verify that a country's nuclear program is exclusively for peaceful purposes. When India ratified the Additional Protocol, it meant that India's civilian nuclear reactors, which are part of the civilian nuclear program, would be subject to IAEA safeguards. This does not extend to military nuclear installations or automatically provide membership in the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), nor does it give automatic privileges to buy uranium from the NSG.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

Let's check the correctness of each town-country pair:

1. Aleppo: Syria
   • This is correctly matched. Aleppo is a major city in Syria.
2. Kirkuk: Yemen
   • This is incorrect. Kirkuk is a city in Iraq, not Yemen.
3. Mosul: Palestine
   • This is incorrect. Mosul is a city in Iraq, not Palestine.
4. Mazar-i-Sharif: Afghanistan
   • This is correctly matched. Mazar-i-Sharif is a major city in Afghanistan.

Conclusion:

The correctly matched pairs are 1 and 4.

The correct answer is (b) 1 and 4.

In the Federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, the residuary powers were given to the Governor General.

Explanation:

• The Government of India Act of 1935 created a federal structure in India with a division of powers between the central and provincial legislatures.
• The Act provided for a federal division of powers where the powers were categorized into three lists: the Federal List, the Provincial List, and the Concurrent List.
• Powers that were not specified in these lists, known as residuary powers, were allocated to the Governor General. This means the Governor General had the authority to make decisions on subjects not enumerated in the lists.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Governor General.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly:

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
   • This statement is correct. The Speaker of a Legislative Assembly must be a member of the Assembly. If the Speaker ceases to be a member (e.g., due to resignation or disqualification), they must vacate the office of the Speaker.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
   • This statement is incorrect. When the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker continues to hold office until a new Assembly is constituted. The Speaker's office is not vacated upon dissolution but remains in place to ensure continuity and smooth functioning until the new Assembly elects a new Speaker.

Conclusion:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

The most appropriate relationship between law and liberty can be understood as follows:

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Explanation:

• (a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
  • This statement reflects a common concern but is not universally accurate. While excessive or restrictive laws can limit liberty, laws themselves are essential for protecting and defining liberty.
• (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
  • This statement is correct. The absence of laws can lead to anarchy, where there is no protection of individual rights or societal order. Laws are necessary to ensure that liberty is protected and that individuals' freedoms are balanced with societal needs.
• (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
  • While this is a desirable principle in a democratic society, it is not the most fundamental relationship between law and liberty. Liberty can exist in various forms, and laws may be made by representatives rather than directly by the people.
• (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
  • Frequent changes in laws can cause uncertainty and instability, but this statement does not directly reflect the fundamental relationship between law and liberty. The core issue is more about the presence of laws rather than their frequency of change.

Conclusion:

The most appropriate relationship that reflects the necessity of laws for ensuring liberty is (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the Governor of a State in India:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
   • This statement is correct. The Governor of a State enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings while in office. The Governor cannot be prosecuted or arrested for any criminal act committed during their tenure.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
   • This statement is correct. The Constitution of India ensures that the emoluments and allowances of the Governor cannot be reduced during their term. This is to maintain the independence and dignity of the office.

Conclusion:

Both statements are correct.

The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the Kishangarh school of Indian painting.

Explanation:

• (a) Bundi school: Known for its distinct style of miniature painting, but "Bani Thani" is not part of this school.
• (b) Jaipur school: Another school of miniature painting, but "Bani Thani" is not associated with it.
• (c) Kangra school: Known for its detailed and refined style, but "Bani Thani" is not part of this tradition.
• (d) Kishangarh school: The "Bani Thani" painting is a famous example of the Kishangarh school of miniature painting, renowned for its distinctive style and portrayal of female beauty.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is (d) Kishangarh school.

"Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)" is an American anti-missile system.

Explanation:

• (a) An Israeli radar system: THAAD is not an Israeli system; it is an American system.
• (b) India's indigenous anti-missile programme: THAAD is not related to India's anti-missile programs. India's program includes systems like the Agni and Aakash missiles.
• (c) An American anti-missile system: THAAD is developed by the United States to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight.
• (d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea: THAAD is not a collaboration between Japan and South Korea. It is an American system that has been deployed in various locations, including South Korea.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is (c) An American anti-missile system.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the cultural history of India:

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
   • This statement is incorrect. Most of Tyagaraja's kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Rama, not Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
   • This statement is correct. Tyagaraja is known for his contributions to Carnatic music, including the creation and popularization of several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
   • This statement is incorrect. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja were not contemporaries. Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th century.
4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
   • This statement is correct. Annamacharya’s kirtanas are indeed devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara (a form of Vishnu).

Conclusion:

The correct statements are 2 and 4.

The correct answer is (b) 2 and 4 only.

The "Rule of Law" is a fundamental principle in legal and constitutional theory, and its main features typically include:

1. Limitation of powers: This ensures that all governmental powers are restricted by law and that no one is above the law.
2. Equality before law: This principle states that every individual, regardless of status or position, is subject to the same laws and has equal protection under the law.
3. People's responsibility to the Government: While individuals have responsibilities under the law, this is not typically considered a defining feature of the "Rule of Law." The concept focuses more on how power is exercised and laws are applied rather than individual responsibilities to the government.
4. Liberty and civil rights: The Rule of Law supports the protection of individual freedoms and civil rights, ensuring that laws are applied fairly and that rights are upheld.

Conclusion:

The main features of the "Rule of Law" are Limitation of powers, Equality before law, and Liberty and civil rights.

The correct answer is (c) 1, 2 and 4 only.

Legal tender money refers to money that must be accepted if offered in payment of a debt. It is the form of money that, by law, creditors are required to accept when a debtor offers to settle a debt.

Explanation of Options:

• (a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases: This does not describe legal tender money but rather the payment made for legal services.
• (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims: This correctly describes legal tender money. Legal tender is money that must be accepted in payment of debts.
• (c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.: These are forms of negotiable instruments but are not considered legal tender. Legal tender typically refers to currency issued by the government.
• (d) The metallic money in circulation in a country: While metallic money can be legal tender, the term "legal tender money" encompasses all forms of currency designated by law, including paper money and coins.

Conclusion:

The correct description of legal tender money is (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.

When a commodity is provided free to the public by the government, the opportunity cost is not zero; it is simply borne by someone else. Here's the explanation for each option:

• (a) The opportunity cost is zero: This is incorrect. The opportunity cost is not zero because resources used to provide the commodity could have been used elsewhere.
• (b) The opportunity cost is ignored: This is also incorrect. Opportunity cost is not ignored; it's just not directly visible to the recipients of the free commodity.
• (c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public: This is correct. When the government provides a commodity for free, the cost of providing that commodity is borne by taxpayers. The opportunity cost is thus transferred from the consumers (who pay nothing directly) to the taxpayers (who fund the provision of the commodity).
• (d) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government: This is incorrect. While the government may facilitate the provision of the commodity, the opportunity cost is ultimately borne by the taxpayers, not the government.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is (c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

Economic development is a broader concept than just increases in absolute and per capita real Gross National Product (GNP). It encompasses improvements in living standards, poverty reduction, and employment opportunities. Therefore, an increase in GNP does not necessarily indicate a higher level of economic development if other negative factors persist.

Here's the explanation for each option:

• (a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output: While this might indicate structural imbalances in the economy, it doesn't directly address the broader aspects of economic development.
• (b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output: Similar to option (a), this indicates an imbalance but doesn't directly address the overall economic development.
• (c) Poverty and unemployment increase: This is the most relevant factor. Economic development should lead to improvements in living standards, reduced poverty, and lower unemployment. If poverty and unemployment increase despite a rise in real GNP, it suggests that the benefits of economic growth are not being equitably distributed or that economic growth is not translating into broader improvements in quality of life.
• (d) Imports grow faster than exports: This could affect the trade balance but doesn't directly indicate whether economic development is occurring. It might influence the economy but is not a direct measure of development.

Conclusion:

The increase in absolute and per capita real GNP does not connote a higher level of economic development if (c) poverty and unemployment increase. This highlights that real economic growth must be accompanied by improvements in socio-economic conditions for it to reflect true development.

The capital formation process in an economy involves accumulating and investing resources to boost production capacity. However, the impact on output might be limited by various factors. Here's how each option affects the capital formation-output relationship:

• (a) Weak administrative machinery: Weak administration can hinder effective investment and efficient allocation of resources, impacting the effectiveness of capital formation.
• (b) Illiteracy: Illiteracy affects human capital and productivity, potentially limiting the benefits derived from capital formation. However, it's not directly related to the capital-output ratio.
• (c) High population density: High population density might lead to resource constraints and could affect output, but it doesn't directly relate to the efficiency of capital formation.
• (d) High capital-output ratio: A high capital-output ratio indicates that a significant amount of capital is required to produce a relatively small amount of output. This means that even with high savings and capital formation, the output may not increase significantly if the capital-output ratio is high.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is (d) high capital-output ratio, as it directly implies that despite high capital formation, the return in terms of output may be limited.

After the Santhal Uprising of 1855-1856, the British colonial government took several measures to address the issues that led to the revolt and to ensure stability in the region:

1. Creation of Santhal Parganas: To address the grievances of the Santhal community and to provide them with a degree of administrative and land management autonomy, the British established the Santhal Parganas. This region was specifically set aside for the Santhals, providing them with protection from outside encroachments.
2. Restriction on Land Transfer: To safeguard the land rights of the Santhals and prevent exploitation, it became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. This was intended to prevent the displacement and economic exploitation of the Santhal people by outsiders.

Conclusion:

Both measures mentioned were taken by the colonial government to address the issues arising from the Santhal Uprising. Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) Both 1 and 2

Economically, one of the significant results of British rule in India during the 19th century was the commercialization of Indian agriculture.

The British colonial administration introduced policies that encouraged the production of cash crops like cotton, indigo, and tea for export markets. This led to a shift from subsistence farming, where crops were grown primarily for local consumption, to a more market-oriented approach where farmers grew crops for sale, often at the expense of their own food security.

Here's why the other options are less relevant:

• Increase in the export of Indian handicrafts: Contrary to this, the export of Indian handicrafts declined due to British industrial competition and restrictive policies.
• Growth in the number of Indian-owned factories: There was limited growth in Indian-owned factories due to British control over industry and trade.
• Rapid increase in the urban population: While urbanization did occur, it was not as pronounced or widespread as the impact of agricultural commercialization.

Therefore, the most accurate result among the given options is:

(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture

If the President of India exercises his power under Article 356 of the Constitution, it refers to the imposition of President's Rule in a state. This power is invoked when the President believes that the government of a state cannot be carried on according to the provisions of the Constitution.

Here’s what happens under Article 356:

• (b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
  When Article 356 is invoked, the state government is dissolved, and the state's powers are taken over by the Parliament. This includes the suspension of the state's legislative assembly and the administration of the state through the central government.

The other options are not directly applicable:

• (a) The Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
  The assembly is not automatically dissolved; it is suspended. The dissolution of the assembly can occur later if required.
• (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
  Article 19 deals with the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression, and while Article 356 might lead to a suspension of normal democratic processes, it does not automatically suspend Article 19.
• (d) The President can make laws relating to that State.
  The President does not make laws directly; instead, the Parliament takes over the legislative functions of the state.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

Let's evaluate the pairs given:

1. Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
   This is correct. Puthukkuli shawls are a traditional craft of Tamil Nadu.
2. Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra
   This is incorrect. Sujni embroidery is actually a traditional craft of Bihar.
3. Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka
   This is incorrect. Uppada Jamdani saris are a traditional craft of Andhra Pradesh.

So, the only correct pair is:

(a) 1 only

GPS technology can indeed be used in various areas. Here's a breakdown of each option:

1. Mobile phone operations: GPS technology is widely used in mobile phones for location services, navigation, and various apps that require location tracking.
2. Banking operations: GPS technology is not typically used directly in banking operations, but it can be utilized for security purposes, such as verifying the location of transactions or ATM operations.
3. Controlling the power grids: GPS technology is used in managing power grids to synchronize the timing of operations across different parts of the grid, ensuring stability and accurate control.

So, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Let's assess each statement:

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years: This statement is partially correct. The Earth's magnetic field does reverse, but not every few hundred thousand years. Magnetic reversals occur irregularly and can take hundreds of thousands to millions of years. The average interval is longer than a few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide: This statement is incorrect. The early Earth had very little oxygen; the atmosphere was primarily composed of carbon dioxide, methane, and ammonia. Significant oxygen levels developed later, primarily due to photosynthesis by early microorganisms.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth: This statement is correct. The emergence of photosynthetic organisms, such as cyanobacteria, played a crucial role in increasing the oxygen content of Earth's atmosphere over geological time.

Given the accuracy of the statements, the correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 3 only

The terms 'WannaCry, Petya, and Eternal Blue' are related to cyber attacks.

• WannaCry and Petya are ransomware attacks that encrypted users' files and demanded ransom payments.
• EternalBlue is an exploit used by these ransomware attacks to spread across networks by exploiting vulnerabilities in Microsoft Windows.

So, the correct answer is:

(c) Cyber attacks

The concept of Conservation Agriculture involves practices that maintain and enhance soil health, reduce soil erosion, and improve the sustainability of farming. The practices associated with Conservation Agriculture include:

• Adopting minimum tillage: Reduces soil disturbance.
• Using crop residues to cover the soil surface: Helps in reducing erosion and improving soil moisture.
• Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations: Enhances soil fertility and reduces pest and disease pressures.

Therefore, the practices falling under Conservation Agriculture are:

• Adopting minimum tillage
• Using crop residues to cover soil surface
• Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

So, the correct answer is:

(c) 2, 4 and 5

The term "sixth mass extinction" refers to the ongoing and significant loss of biodiversity due to human activities. It is characterized by a dramatic increase in the rate of species extinction, primarily driven by factors such as habitat destruction, climate change, pollution, and over-exploitation of natural resources.

Therefore, the correct context for the term "sixth mass extinction" is:

(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity predicts the following:

1. Light is affected by gravity. — This is correct. According to General Relativity, gravity can bend the path of light, a phenomenon known as gravitational lensing.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding. — This is also correct. General Relativity predicts that the universe is expanding, a concept supported by observations such as the redshift of distant galaxies.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. — This is correct as well. General Relativity describes how matter and energy warp the fabric of space-time, which we perceive as gravity.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Let's examine each pair:

1. Belle II experiment — Artificial Intelligence: This is incorrect. The Belle II experiment is related to particle physics and is a high-energy physics experiment aimed at studying fundamental particles.
2. Blockchain technology — Digital/Cryptocurrency: This is correct. Blockchain technology is the underlying technology behind cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin and Ethereum. It is also used for various digital and secure transactions.
3. CRISPR – Cas9 — Particle Physics: This is incorrect. CRISPR-Cas9 is a tool for gene editing and is associated with biotechnology and genetics, not particle physics.

Therefore, the correct pair is:

(b) 2 only

Carbon fertilization refers to the process where increased concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the atmosphere lead to enhanced plant growth. Plants use CO₂ during photosynthesis, so a higher concentration can boost their growth rates, especially if other conditions (like nutrients and water) are also favorable.

Thus, the statement that best describes "carbon fertilization" is:

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

The scenario described involves various devices and systems communicating with each other to automate and manage tasks in a connected environment. This is best described by the term:

(b) Internet of Things (IoT)

IoT refers to a network of interconnected devices that can collect and exchange data to enhance automation and functionality in everyday life.

The correct answer is:

(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

Explanation: In the middle of the 18th century, the English East India Company primarily exported the following staple commodities from Bengal:

• Cotton: Bengal was known for its high-quality cotton fabrics.
• Silk: Bengal produced fine silk fabrics.
• Saltpetre: Used in the production of gunpowder.
• Opium: The East India Company exported opium to China and other regions.

The correct answer is:

(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement

Explanation: The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, led by Mahatma Gandhi, was significant for its role in involving peasant unrest into India's National Movement. Gandhi's campaign addressed the grievances of the peasants who were forced to grow indigo under harsh conditions. This was the first major involvement of Gandhi in the Indian freedom struggle and highlighted the linkage between agrarian distress and the broader national movement against colonial rule.

The correct answer is:

(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Explanation: The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was founded in 1948 by Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam, and G.G. Mehta. It was established to represent the working class and labor unions in India and to advocate for workers' rights and welfare.

The correct answer is:

(b) Jainism

Explanation: The Sthanakvasi sect is a part of Jainism. It is one of the sects of the Jain tradition that emphasizes non-idolatry and focuses on spiritual practice and ethical living.

The correct answer is:

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a French gem dealer and traveller, is well-known for his detailed descriptions of diamonds and diamond mines in India during the 17th century. His accounts provided valuable information about the diamond trade in India at that time.

The correct answer is:

(c) Maitreya

Maitreya is regarded as the future Buddha in Buddhist tradition, who is expected to come to Earth to save the world and restore the teachings of Buddhism.

The statement that does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley is:

(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

The Subsidiary Alliance system was primarily designed to maintain a large standing army at the expense of Indian states, keep India safe from Napoleonic threats, and establish British paramountcy over the Indian states. It was not aimed at securing a fixed income for the Company.

The introduction of English education in India was influenced by multiple factors, including:

1. Charter Act of 1813: This Act allocated funds for the promotion of education in India, which led to the establishment of English education.
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823: This Committee played a significant role in the development of educational policies, including the promotion of English education.
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy: The debate between the Orientalists (who favored traditional Indian languages and literature) and the Anglicists (who supported English education) also contributed to the direction of educational policies.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Among the options listed:

• Kodaikanal Lake in Tamil Nadu is an artificial lake.
• Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh is a natural lake.
• Nainital Lake in Uttarakhand is a natural lake.
• Renuka Lake in Himachal Pradesh is a natural lake.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

The Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is a major initiative for skill development in India. Evaluating the statements:

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
   • This is incorrect. The PMKVY is actually implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
   • This is correct. The scheme includes training in various skills, including soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial, and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
   • This is also correct. The PMKVY aims to enhance the skill sets of the workforce and align them with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF).

So, the correct answer is:

(c) 2 and 3 only

In 1920, the All India Home Rule League changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha."

This reorganization was part of the broader movement towards achieving self-rule (Swarajya) for India.

So, the correct answer is:

(a) All India Home Rule League

To determine which event happened earliest:

1. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj in 1875.
2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote "Neel Darpan" in 1860.
3. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote "Anandmath" in 1882.
4. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination in 1863.

Among these, Dinabandhu Mitra's "Neel Darpan" was written in 1860, which is the earliest event listed.

So, the correct answer is:

(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan

Heavy sand mining in riverbeds can have several environmental impacts. The possible consequences include:

• Pollution of groundwater: Sand mining can disturb the riverbed and surrounding areas, leading to contamination of groundwater.
• Lowering of the water-table: Excessive removal of sand can affect the groundwater recharge and lead to a decrease in the water table.

However, decreased salinity in the river is not a typical consequence of sand mining. In fact, sand mining generally does not have a direct impact on the salinity of the river.

So, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

Here's the evaluation of the statements regarding agricultural soils:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity: This is incorrect. A high content of organic matter typically increases the water holding capacity of the soil, as organic matter helps in retaining moisture.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle: This is incorrect. Soil plays a crucial role in the sulfur cycle. Sulfur is a key nutrient for plants, and soil microorganisms contribute to the transformation of sulfur compounds.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands: This is correct. Prolonged irrigation can lead to the accumulation of salts in the soil, a process known as salinization.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) 3 only

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) emerged from the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro, also known as Rio+20.

So, the correct answer is:

(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro.

"3D printing" has diverse applications, including:

1. Preparation of confectionery items – 3D printing can be used to create intricate designs in food.
2. Manufacture of bionic ears – 3D printing technology is used to create prosthetic and bionic body parts.
3. Automotive industry – 3D printing is employed for making parts and prototypes.
4. Reconstructive surgeries – 3D printing is used to create custom implants and prosthetics for surgeries.
5. Data processing technologies – While not a direct application, data processing is crucial for 3D printing to interpret designs and manage the printing process.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Here's the evaluation of the statements regarding the Barren Island volcano:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
   • Correct. Barren Island is an active volcano and is located in the Indian territory, in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
   • Incorrect. Barren Island is actually about 135 km northeast of the northern tip of the Andaman Islands, not east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
   • Incorrect. Barren Island erupted again in 2005 and 2017. Thus, it has been active more recently than 1991.

Based on this evaluation, the correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Prosopis juliflora, often mentioned in news, is known for the following reason:

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite, is an invasive species that can outcompete native vegetation, leading to a reduction in local biodiversity. Its ability to quickly spread and its aggressive growth habit make it problematic in many regions where it is not native.

Here’s the analysis of the statements:

1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.
   • This is correct. Coral reefs are primarily found in warm, tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia, and Philippines.
   • This is also correct. These regions are known for their significant coral reef systems.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
   • This is correct as well. Coral reefs are among the most diverse ecosystems on Earth, hosting a greater number of animal phyla compared to tropical rainforests.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

"Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by the:

(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

This initiative encourages individuals, businesses, and governments to measure, reduce, and offset their carbon footprint to help tackle climate change.

Here’s the correct pairing of the institutions and their founders:

1. Sanskrit College at Benaras: Founded by Jonathan Duncan.
2. Calcutta Madarsa: Founded by Warren Hastings.
3. Fort William College: Founded by Lord Wellesley.

So, the correct pairs are:

(b) 2 only

Here’s the correct information for each region:

1. Catalonia: Spain
2. Crimea: Ukraine (not Hungary)
3. Mindanao: Philippines
4. Oromia: Ethiopia (not Nigeria)

So, the correctly matched pairs are:

(c) 1 and 3 only

The Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. This right is part of the fundamental freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution.

Therefore, the correct option is:

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

The Minimum Support Price (MSP) announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs typically includes staple crops and some cash crops. Based on the options provided:

• Areca nut (not usually covered under MSP)
• Barley (covered under MSP)
• Coffee (covered under MSP)
• Finger millet (covered under MSP)
• Groundnut (covered under MSP)
• Sesamum (covered under MSP)
• Turmeric (covered under MSP)

The correct option that includes crops for which MSP is announced is:

(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary, is located in Arunachal Pradesh.

So, the correct answer is:

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

Here's a breakdown of the statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
   This statement is correct. The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is indeed used for launching satellites into polar orbits, which are useful for Earth observation and resource monitoring. The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is used primarily for launching satellites into geostationary orbits, which are used for communication.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
   This statement is incorrect. Satellites launched by PSLV are placed into polar orbits or sun-synchronous orbits, not geostationary orbits. In polar orbits, satellites do not remain fixed in the same position relative to the Earth’s surface; instead, they pass over different parts of the Earth’s surface as the Earth rotates beneath them.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
   This statement is incorrect. GSLV Mk III, also known as LVM-3, is a three-stage vehicle: it has a first stage with solid rocket boosters, a second stage with a liquid core stage, and a third stage with a cryogenic upper stage. There is no fourth stage.

Therefore, the correct statement is:

(a) 1 only

Under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India, certain items are exempt from GST. Here's the status of the items listed:

1. Cereal grains hulled - These are generally exempt from GST. Cereal grains like rice, wheat, and pulses are classified as essential food items and are exempt from GST.
2. Chicken eggs cooked - Cooked or prepared food items, including cooked chicken eggs, are typically subject to GST. However, the specifics can vary, and some prepared foods may be taxed under GST, depending on the context and preparation.
3. Fish processed and canned - Processed and canned fish are generally subject to GST, as they are not typically classified as essential items.
4. Newspapers containing advertising material - Newspapers are exempt from GST, including those that contain advertising material.

Based on this:

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Plant diseases can be spread through various agents. Let's examine each option:

1. Birds
   • Birds can spread plant diseases by carrying pathogens on their feathers or in their droppings.
2. Dust blowing
   • Dust blowing can carry fungal spores and other pathogens that may infect plants.
3. Rain
   • Rain can spread plant diseases by splashing pathogens from infected plants to healthy ones or by facilitating the dispersal of pathogens.
4. Wind blowing
   • Wind can disperse fungal spores, bacteria, and viruses over long distances, spreading plant diseases.

Given this information, all four factors—birds, dust blowing, rain, and wind blowing—can spread plant diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Let's analyze each statement regarding organic farming in India:

1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
   • This statement is incorrect. The NPOP is actually operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
   • This statement is correct. APEDA is indeed the Secretariat for implementing NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.
   • This statement is correct. Sikkim has achieved the status of India's first fully organic State.

Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only