Let's evaluate each statement about the differences between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and the Indus Valley Civilization:

1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.

   This statement is correct. The Rigvedic Aryans are described in their texts as using armor and helmets, while archaeological evidence from the Indus Valley Civilization does not show any use of such military equipment.

2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.

   This statement is incorrect. Both the Rigvedic Aryans and the Indus Valley Civilization were familiar with gold, silver, and copper. However, the Indus Valley Civilization did not use iron, as it is not found in their artifacts. The Rigvedic Aryans also did not have iron in their period, as iron use came later.

3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.

   This statement is correct. The Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated horses and used them in warfare and transportation. The Indus Valley Civilization, based on current evidence, did not appear to use horses; there is no concrete evidence of horse domestication in their archaeological remains.

Given this analysis, the correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 3 only

The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme is an initiative aimed at acknowledging and certifying the skills and knowledge that individuals have acquired through informal or non-formal means. It helps in validating and formalizing their existing skills, making them eligible for certification and further opportunities.

The most accurate description of the RPL Scheme among the given options is:

(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.

This is because RPL is often used to recognize and certify skills that individuals have gained through work experience or informal learning, such as those acquired by construction workers or other tradespeople who have learned their skills through practice rather than formal education.

From an ecological perspective, the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve plays a crucial role as a link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats. It is strategically located in the Western Ghats and connects the Eastern Ghats through its diverse ecosystems and wildlife corridors.

Here’s why:

• Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (a): This reserve serves as an important ecological corridor connecting the Western Ghats to the Eastern Ghats, facilitating the movement of wildlife between these two mountain ranges.
• Nallamala Forest (b) and Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve (d): While these are significant in their own right, they are more focused on the Eastern Ghats and do not serve as a direct link between the Eastern and Western Ghats.
• Nagarhole National Park (c): This park is part of the Western Ghats and is important for conservation but does not function as a link to the Eastern Ghats.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

Let's evaluate the statements about TRAFFIC:

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations (UNEP) Environment Programme.

   This statement is incorrect. TRAFFIC is not a bureau under the UNEP. It is an independent organization that operates as a joint program of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). TRAFFIC focuses on monitoring and regulating the trade in wildlife.

2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

   This statement is correct. TRAFFIC’s mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten the conservation of nature and that it is conducted in a sustainable manner.

Given this analysis, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution, enacted in 1976, introduced several changes to the Directive Principles of State Policy. Among these changes, the principle added was:

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

This principle was added to the Directive Principles to promote greater involvement of workers in the decision-making processes of industries, aiming to ensure that workers have a voice in how industries are managed and operated.

The other options were already part of the Directive Principles or had been introduced by earlier amendments:

• Equal pay for equal work for both men and women (a) was already part of the Directive Principles.
• Right to work, education and public assistance (c) were also part of the Directive Principles.
• Securing a living wage and human conditions of work to workers (d) was included earlier as well.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

The correct statement regarding rights is:

(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

Explanation:

• Rights are claims of the citizens against the State: This statement is accurate because rights are entitlements that individuals have in relation to the state. These are protections or freedoms that the state is obligated to respect and uphold. Rights are meant to safeguard individuals from potential abuses by the state and ensure fair treatment.
• Rights are claims of the State against the citizens (a): This is incorrect because rights are not claims of the state against the citizens; rather, they are protections or entitlements that citizens have against the state.
• Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State (b): While rights can be incorporated into the Constitution, they are not merely privileges but fundamental entitlements that protect individuals’ freedoms and justice.
• Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many (d): This is incorrect because rights are universal entitlements, not privileges granted to only a few.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

The Global Gender Gap Index is published by the:

(a) World Economic Forum

Explanation:

• World Economic Forum (a): The Global Gender Gap Index is an annual report published by the World Economic Forum. It measures gender-based disparities in various areas such as economic participation, educational attainment, health, and political empowerment.
• UN Human Rights Council (b): This council addresses human rights issues but does not produce the Global Gender Gap Index.
• UN Women (c): UN Women works on gender equality and women’s empowerment but does not publish the Global Gender Gap Index.
• World Health Organization (d): The WHO focuses on global health issues and does not produce the Global Gender Gap Index.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(a) World Economic Forum

Let's evaluate the statements regarding the Smart India Hackathon 2017:

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.

   This statement is incorrect. The Smart India Hackathon is not a scheme for developing Smart Cities; it is a competition aimed at fostering innovation and solving problems through digital technology.

2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.

   This statement is correct. The Smart India Hackathon 2017 was an initiative to encourage and identify innovative digital solutions to address various challenges faced by the country. It involved students and professionals working on real-world problems using technology.

3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

   This statement is incorrect. The Smart India Hackathon is not focused solely on digital financial transactions but rather on broader technological solutions to various national problems.

Given this evaluation, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Let's evaluate the statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):

1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.

   This statement is correct. The MPC is responsible for setting the benchmark interest rates, such as the repo rate, to control inflation and support economic growth.

2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.

   This statement is incorrect. The MPC consists of 6 members, not 12. It includes the Governor of the RBI and 5 other members appointed by the Government of India. The MPC is not reconstituted every year; its members serve fixed terms.

3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

   This statement is incorrect. The MPC is chaired by the Governor of the RBI, not the Union Finance Minister.

Given this analysis, the correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Let's evaluate each statement regarding Manipuri Sankirtana:

1. It is a song and dance performance.

   This statement is correct. Manipuri Sankirtana is indeed a traditional performance that combines singing and dancing.

2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.

   This statement is incorrect. While cymbals (known as "kartals") are a prominent part of the performance, other musical instruments such as the "dhol" (drum) are also used in Manipuri Sankirtana.

3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

   This statement is correct. Manipuri Sankirtana is often performed to narrate and celebrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna, particularly focusing on his various leelas (divine activities).

Given this analysis, the correct answer is:

(b) 1 and 3 only

The Ryotwari Settlement was introduced in India during the British rule, and the key figures associated with its introduction were:

1. Lord Cornwallis: He is not associated with the Ryotwari Settlement. He is known for the Permanent Settlement introduced in Bengal.
2. Alexander Read: He was involved in the early stages of the Ryotwari Settlement, particularly in the Madras Presidency.
3. Thomas Munro: He is one of the primary figures associated with the development and implementation of the Ryotwari Settlement, particularly in the Madras Presidency.

Given this information, the correct answer is:

(c) 2 and 3 only

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the advantages of the bioremediation technique:

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.This statement is correct. Bioremediation works by enhancing natural biodegradation processes to clean up pollutants. It uses microorganisms or plants to break down or transform pollutants into less harmful substances.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.This statement is not entirely accurate. While bioremediation can treat certain contaminants, including some heavy metals, it is not always effective for all heavy metals or in all conditions. Heavy metals like cadmium and lead can be challenging to treat, and bioremediation might not always be fully effective.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.This statement is correct. Genetic engineering can indeed be used to develop microorganisms that are specifically designed to break down or transform pollutants more effectively.

Given this evaluation, the correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 3 only

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was an important piece of legislation aimed at managing industrial disputes in India. The key features of the Act included:

(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Explanation:

• The Act established a system of tribunals to resolve industrial disputes and aimed to ensure industrial harmony by providing a legal mechanism for adjudicating disputes.
• It also imposed restrictions on strikes, particularly during the pendency of adjudication proceedings, to reduce disruption to industry and economy.

The other options are not accurate for the Trade Disputes Act of 1929:

• (a): The Act did not provide for worker participation in management.
• (b): It did not grant arbitrary powers to management.
• (c): It did not involve British Courts directly; it focused on domestic adjudication mechanisms.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Local self-government is best explained as an exercise in:

(b) Democratic decentralisation

Explanation:

• Democratic decentralisation (b): Local self-government involves delegating powers and responsibilities to local authorities to manage local affairs, which is a key aspect of democratic decentralisation. This system allows for local decision-making and governance, reflecting democratic principles at the grassroots level.
• Federalism (a): While local self-government is an aspect of federal systems, it is not exclusive to federalism and can be part of unitary systems with decentralized governance as well.
• Administrative delegation (c): This refers to transferring administrative responsibilities from a higher level of government to a lower level, but it does not encompass the democratic aspect inherent in local self-government.
• Direct democracy (d): This refers to a system where decisions are made directly by the people rather than through elected representatives, which is different from the structure of local self-government.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) Democratic decentralisation

The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India serve as guidelines for the government in formulating and implementing policies and laws. They are not legally enforceable but are meant to direct the governance in achieving socio-economic justice.

Here's the evaluation of the statements:

1. Legislative function: The Directive Principles are not directly limitations on the legislative function. Instead, they guide the legislature in making laws that align with the principles of socio-economic justice and welfare.
2. Executive function: The Directive Principles do act as guidelines for the executive branch in formulating and implementing policies, but they do not impose direct limitations. They influence executive actions by providing a framework for policy decisions.

Given these explanations, the correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' refers to:

(c) EU

Explanation:

• EU (European Union): The Digital Single Market Strategy is an initiative by the European Union aimed at creating a single market for digital goods and services across all EU member states. It focuses on removing barriers to cross-border online activities and fostering a more integrated and competitive digital economy within the EU.
• ASEAN (a): The Association of Southeast Asian Nations does not have a specific Digital Single Market Strategy like the EU.
• BRICS (b): BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) is a group of emerging economies and does not have a unified Digital Single Market Strategy.
• G20 (d): The G20 is a forum for international economic cooperation and does not have a specific Digital Single Market Strategy.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) EU

The unique phenomenon where the sea water recedes from the shoreline and comes back twice a day, allowing you to walk on the sea floor when the water recedes, is observed at:

(c) Chandipur

Explanation:

• Chandipur: Located in Odisha, Chandipur is famous for its unique tidal patterns, where the sea water recedes significantly, up to 5 kilometers or more during low tide. This phenomenon allows visitors to walk on the sea floor during low tide.
• Bhavnagar (a): Located in Gujarat, Bhavnagar does not have this specific tidal pattern.
• Bheemunipatnam (b): Situated in Andhra Pradesh, Bheemunipatnam does not exhibit such extreme tidal fluctuations.
• Nagapattinam (d): Located in Tamil Nadu, Nagapattinam also does not have this characteristic tidal phenomenon.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) Chandipur

Let's evaluate each statement about the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act):

1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.This statement is incorrect. Under the PBPT Act, a transaction can be considered benami regardless of whether the nominal owner is aware of it. The essence of benami transactions is that the property is held in the name of one person while the real ownership lies with another.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.This statement is correct. The PBPT Act allows for the confiscation of properties that are determined to be held benami. The government has the authority to seize such properties under this Act.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.This statement is incorrect. The PBPT Act does provide for an appellate mechanism. It includes provisions for appeals to the Appellate Tribunal against orders of confiscation made by the authorities.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the limitations of developing countries in promoting algae-based biofuels:

1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.

   This statement is incorrect. While algae-based biofuels can be produced in marine environments, they can also be cultivated in freshwater systems or on land-based farms using specially designed systems. Therefore, production is not restricted to seas only.

2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production requires a high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.

   This statement is correct. The development of algae-based biofuel technology involves sophisticated and advanced technology, including expertise in algae cultivation, harvesting, and processing. Developing countries may face challenges in acquiring and implementing this level of technology.

3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large-scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

   This statement is correct. Large-scale production facilities for algae-based biofuels can be economically challenging and may raise ecological and social concerns, such as land use, water consumption, and potential impacts on local communities.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

Let's evaluate the statements:

1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.

   This statement is incorrect. The Factories Act of 1881 was primarily aimed at regulating the working conditions in factories, such as working hours and child labor, rather than fixing wages or allowing the formation of trade unions. The act was one of the early pieces of labor legislation focused on improving safety and working conditions rather than wage regulation or union rights.

2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

   This statement is correct. N.M. Lokhande is recognized as a pioneer in the labor movement in British India. He was actively involved in organizing workers and advocating for their rights during the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

In the context of mitigating global warming through carbon sequestration, the following sites are potential candidates for storing carbon dioxide:

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams: These can be used for carbon sequestration, where CO₂ can be injected into these seams to enhance coalbed methane recovery while storing the CO₂.
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs: These are well-suited for carbon sequestration because they have already proven their capacity to contain fluids and can securely store CO₂.
3. Subterranean deep saline formations: These formations are also suitable for carbon sequestration. They are porous rock formations that can store CO₂ in the form of supercritical fluid.

Given these options, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is often associated with policies that mandate a certain percentage of goods or services be sourced from local suppliers or producers. In the context of the options provided:

(a) Developing solar power production in our country is correct. Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) policies are used in the renewable energy sector, particularly solar power, to ensure that a certain percentage of solar panels or components used in the country are manufactured domestically. This supports local industries and reduces dependency on imports.

• (b): Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels does not typically involve domestic content requirements.
• (c): Exporting food products does not involve domestic content requirements but rather concerns with standards and quality for international markets.
• (d): Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up campuses does not typically involve domestic content requirements.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(a) Developing solar power production in our country

Let's evaluate each statement:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.

   This statement is incorrect. The Nuclear Security Summits were not organized under the aegis of the United Nations. They were initiated by the United States and held from 2010 to 2016 with the aim of improving global nuclear security. The summits were held under the leadership of the U.S. and involved various countries, but they were not a UN-organized series.

2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency.

   This statement is incorrect. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent research initiative and is not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IPFM focuses on issues related to fissile materials and their management, but it operates independently of the IAEA.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Let's evaluate each statement about the Zika virus disease:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.

   This statement is correct. The Zika virus is primarily transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, specifically Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. These same mosquitoes are also responsible for transmitting dengue fever.

2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

   This statement is correct. Zika virus can be transmitted through sexual contact in addition to mosquito bites. Sexual transmission has been documented and is a significant mode of transmission for Zika virus.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(c) Both 1 and 2

Let's evaluate each statement:

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.

   This statement is correct. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) mandates that automotive tyres and tubes conform to specific standards and bear the BIS Standard Mark to ensure quality and safety.

2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

   This statement is incorrect. AGMARK (Agricultural Mark) is a quality certification mark issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, which operates under the Ministry of Agriculture of the Government of India, not by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

The National Agriculture Market (eNAM) scheme in India is designed to improve the agricultural market infrastructure. Let's evaluate the given statements:

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.

   This statement is correct. eNAM is indeed a pan-India electronic trading platform that aims to connect existing Agricultural Produce Market Committees (APMCs) and create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.

2. It provides the farmers access to a nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

   This statement is also correct. The eNAM platform helps farmers access a broader market, potentially getting better prices for their produce based on quality and demand.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(c) Both 1 and 2

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, certain animals are protected and cannot be hunted except under specific provisions provided by law. The Act classifies wildlife into different schedules with varying levels of protection.

1. Gharial: The gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides the highest level of protection. Hunting of animals in Schedule I is prohibited except under special provisions.
2. Indian Wild Ass: The Indian wild ass (Equus hemionus khur) is also listed in Schedule I of the Act. This means it is similarly protected and cannot be hunted except under provisions provided by law.
3. Wild Buffalo: The wild buffalo (Bubalus arnee) is listed in Schedule I as well. Like the other animals mentioned, it is protected and cannot be hunted except under specific legal provisions.

Given that all three animals listed are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Let's evaluate the statements regarding the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen:

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

   This statement is incorrect. The Fundamental Duties, enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, are moral obligations intended to promote a sense of responsibility among citizens. However, there is no specific legislative process provided for the enforcement of these duties. They are not legally enforceable through any legal sanction or penalty.

2. They are correlative to legal duties.

   This statement is incorrect. Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties. They are more about moral and ethical responsibilities rather than enforceable legal obligations. While legal duties are enforceable by law, Fundamental Duties serve as guidelines for citizens to promote a sense of civic responsibility.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Let's evaluate each pair:

1. Radhakanta Deb - First President of the British Indian Association

   This pair is correct. Radhakanta Deb was indeed the first president of the British Indian Association, which was one of the early organizations advocating for the rights of Indians during the British colonial period.

2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty - Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha

   This pair is incorrect. The Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded by R. Muthiah Chetty, not Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty was, however, a prominent figure in the Indian nationalist movement and involved in other reform activities.

3. Surendranath Banerjee - Founder of the Indian Association

   This pair is correct. Surendranath Banerjee was indeed a founder of the Indian Association, which was established in 1876 to promote political awareness and organize efforts for the Indian nationalist movement.

Given these evaluations, the correct answer is:

(b) 1 and 3 only

The Preamble to the Constitution of India outlines several key objectives, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. Specifically, it mentions:

• Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.

From the options provided:

• (a) Liberty of thought: This is embodied in the Preamble.
• (b) Economic liberty: This is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble. The Preamble emphasizes social, economic, and political justice but does not specifically use the term "economic liberty."
• (c) Liberty of expression: This is embodied in the Preamble.
• (d) Liberty of belief: This is embodied in the Preamble.

Given that "Economic liberty" is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble, the correct answer is:

(b) Economic liberty

The correct answer is:

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

Democracy is often valued because it involves the participation of ordinary citizens, allowing them to express their intelligence, character, and judgment in the governance process. This is seen as a key virtue of democratic systems, as opposed to concentrating power in the hands of a few or relying solely on elite leadership.

The most likely consequence of implementing the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is:

(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.

UPI allows direct bank-to-bank transfers and facilitates seamless online payments without the need for intermediary mobile wallets, making mobile wallets less necessary for online transactions.

The terms "Event Horizon," "Singularity," "String Theory," and "Standard Model" are associated with:

(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe

These terms are related to concepts in astrophysics and theoretical physics, particularly in the study of black holes, fundamental particles, and the fundamental forces of nature.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Genome sequencing can indeed be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in crops, reduce the time required to develop new crop varieties, and decipher host-pathogen relationships in crops.

The correct answer is:

(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

In a parliamentary form of government, the executive is directly accountable to the legislature, ensuring that the government remains responsive to the elected representatives and, by extension, to the people.

The correct answer is:

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

In the context of India, rights and duties are considered to be correlative, meaning that the enjoyment of rights by an individual comes with the responsibility to perform certain duties towards others and the state. This relationship emphasizes a balance between individual liberties and societal obligations.

The correct answer is:

(a) The Preamble

The Preamble to the Constitution of India reflects the vision, intentions, and fundamental values of the makers of the Constitution. It outlines the objectives and principles upon which the Constitution is based.

The correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 3

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through various means, including:

1. Adjournment motion: This is used to draw attention to a matter of urgent public importance, often leading to discussion and scrutiny of the actions of the government.
2. Question hour: During this time, members of Parliament ask questions to ministers about the functioning of their ministries, which helps in holding the government accountable.
3. Supplementary questions: These are follow-up questions asked during Question Hour, which allow members to seek further clarification on the answers provided by the ministers.

The correct answer is:

(b) Motupalli

Motupalli was a prominent seaport during the Kakatiya dynasty. It played a significant role in trade and commerce during that period. The other locations mentioned, such as Kakinada, Machilipatnam, and Nelluru, were important in different historical contexts but were not as central to the Kakatiya kingdom's maritime activities.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 and 2 only

The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is indeed an initiative of the European Union and provides technical and financial support to developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. However, it is not coordinated by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Instead, it is managed by the European Commission and its related agencies.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect because Sautrantika and Sammitiya were sects of Buddhism, not Jainism.

Statement 2 is correct. The Sarvastivadin school of Buddhism held that all phenomena (dharmas) exist in some form, not just momentarily but persist in a latent or potential form.

The correct answer is:

(c) 3 and 4 only

The Mediterranean Sea borders Lebanon and Syria, but not Jordan or Iraq.

The correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is not an organ of NITI Aayog; it is a fund set up by the Government of India. It is managed by the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited, which is a company set up by the government.
2. As of the latest updates, the corpus of NIIF is not 4,00,000 crore. It is significantly less than this amount.

The correct answer is:

(b) World Bank collaboration facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a global initiative led by the World Bank to help prepare and structure complex infrastructure projects, particularly Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs), to attract private sector and institutional investor capital.

Let's evaluate the statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
   • This is incorrect. The Himalayas extend across seven Indian states: Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, West Bengal, and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
   • This is incorrect. The Western Ghats span across six states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
   • This is correct. Pulicat Lake is located on the border of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.

So, the correct answer is:

(b) 3 only

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure used in environmental science to assess the amount of oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water. It is commonly used to evaluate the level of pollution in aquatic ecosystems.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems

UN-Habitat, the United Nations Human Settlements Programme, is tasked with promoting sustainable urban development and improving living conditions in cities and towns around the world. Here’s a breakdown of the statements:

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. - This statement is correct. UN-Habitat's mandate includes promoting sustainable urbanization and improving living conditions.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. - This statement is incorrect. UN-Habitat partners with a broad range of stakeholders including governments, local authorities, civil society organizations, private sector entities, and international organizations.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. - This statement is correct. UN-Habitat works towards reducing poverty and improving access to essential services.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(b) 1 and 3 only

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect because under the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), certification for competency can be acquired through both formal and informal learning.
• Statement 2 is correct as one of the outcomes expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

The correct answer is:

(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

• Dyarchy, introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919, referred to the division of subjects in the provincial governments into two categories: "Reserved" and "Transferred." The "Reserved" subjects were controlled by the Governor and his executive council, while the "Transferred" subjects were managed by Indian ministers responsible to the legislative council.

The correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• The National Career Service (NCS) is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Department of Personnel and Training. It aims to connect job seekers with job providers by offering a range of employment-related services, and it is not limited to uneducated youth but covers a broad spectrum of job seekers.

The correct answer is:

(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.

The Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to help large corporations facing genuine financial difficulties by restructuring their loans in a sustainable manner.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is not an initiative of the G20 group of countries. It was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and several countries and organizations.
2. The CCAC indeed focuses on reducing methane, black carbon, and hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are potent short-lived climate pollutants.

Thus, only the second statement is correct.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical western Indian Ocean and the tropical eastern Indian Ocean, not the tropical eastern Pacific Ocean. This makes the first statement incorrect.
2. The IOD phenomenon can indeed influence an El Niño's impact on the Indian monsoon. A positive IOD can mitigate the adverse effects of El Niño on the monsoon, making the second statement correct.

Thus, only the second statement is correct.

The correct answer is:

(b) Chambal River

Explanation:

The Chambal River is known for being one of the primary habitats for gharials (a type of crocodile native to the Indian subcontinent) in their natural environment. The National Chambal Sanctuary along the Chambal River is a protected area specifically established for the conservation of gharials.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. The inaugural Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) was held in India, but it took place in 2008, not 2015. It was initiated by the Indian Navy to enhance maritime cooperation among the navies of the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) littoral states.
2. The IONS is indeed a voluntary initiative that aims to increase maritime cooperation among the navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

The correct answer is:

(a) Ajanta

Explanation:

The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and frequently illustrated paintings located at the Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra, India. The Ajanta Caves are known for their stunning Buddhist rock-cut cave monuments, featuring exquisite murals and paintings from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 CE.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Chaliha Sahib Festival is correctly matched with the Sindhi community. It is a significant festival observed by the Sindhis.
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra is associated with the Garhwali people of Uttarakhand, not the Gonds.
3. Wari-Warkari tradition is related to the Maratha community in Maharashtra, particularly the followers of Lord Vithoba, not the Santhals.

Hence, only pair 1 is correctly matched.

The correct answer is:

(b) 3 only

Explanation:

1. Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation is not a direct objective of the Soil Health Card Scheme. The scheme primarily focuses on soil health rather than irrigation expansion.
2. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans based on soil quality is not a stated objective of the Soil Health Card Scheme. The scheme is more about providing information on soil health rather than influencing loan decisions.
3. Checking the overuse of fertilizers is a key objective of the Soil Health Card Scheme. By providing farmers with detailed information about soil nutrient levels, the scheme helps them use fertilizers more efficiently and avoid overuse.

The correct answer is:

(c) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates: This is true. OLED technology allows for the production of displays on flexible materials, which can be used in a variety of applications including bendable and rollable screens.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs: This is true. OLED technology's flexibility allows for the creation of roll-up and foldable displays that can be integrated into various materials, including fabrics.
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs: This is true. OLED technology can be used to produce transparent displays, which can be used in applications where visibility through the screen is desired.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Arasavalli: This place in Andhra Pradesh is famous for the Sun Temple dedicated to the Sun God.
2. Amarakantak: This is known for its temples, but not specifically famous for Sun temples. It is more renowned for its role as a source of several important rivers and other religious sites.
3. Omkareshwar: This site is famous for its Shiva temple, not for Sun temples.

So, among the options provided, Arasavalli is the only one specifically known for its Sun Temple.

The correct answer is:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, a candidate does not need to secure 50 percent of the votes polled. A candidate only needs to secure the highest number of votes (a simple majority) to be declared elected. This means a candidate with more votes than any other candidate in that constituency wins, even if they have less than 50% of the total votes.
2. Statement 2: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves and does not automatically go to the majority party. The Deputy Speaker is similarly elected, but not necessarily given to the Opposition. The allocation of these posts is decided based on political agreements and negotiations, not strictly by party affiliation.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

1. Share of agriculture in GDP: The share of agriculture in India's GDP has actually decreased since the economic liberalization of 1991. The focus on industrialization and services has led to a relative decline in the contribution of agriculture to GDP.
2. Share of India's exports in world trade: After liberalization, India's share of exports in world trade increased due to improved trade policies and economic reforms.
3. FDI inflows: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows increased significantly after the liberalization of economic policies in 1991, as India opened up more sectors to foreign investment.
4. India's foreign exchange reserves: India's foreign exchange reserves increased considerably following economic liberalization due to increased foreign investment, remittances, and improved trade balance.

The correct answer is:

(c) Reproductive cloning of animals

Explanation:

Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) technology is primarily used for reproductive cloning of animals. It involves transferring the nucleus of a somatic cell into an egg cell that has had its nucleus removed, creating an embryo that can develop into an organism genetically identical to the donor of the somatic cell. This technology was famously used to create "Dolly the sheep," the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell.

The correct answer is:

(c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion: NPCI plays a crucial role in expanding financial inclusion in India by providing a range of payment systems and services, including enabling access to banking services for underserved and rural populations.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme: RuPay is a domestic card payment scheme developed by NPCI to provide an alternative to international card schemes and promote financial inclusion. It aims to offer a cost-effective and accessible payment solution for the Indian population.

The correct answer is:

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

Explanation:

M-STrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) is a system developed for the management and maintenance of tiger reserves in India. It helps in monitoring and evaluating the status of tiger reserves, including aspects related to tiger populations and their habitat, to ensure effective conservation efforts.

The correct answer is:

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

1. GST will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. This is a primary advantage of GST as it aims to simplify the tax structure and eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, making it easier to do business and creating a unified national market.
2. GST is unlikely to drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit of India and enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves directly. While GST can improve tax compliance and potentially boost economic growth, it does not directly address the current account deficit or foreign exchange reserves.
3. GST is not expected to enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India or enable it to overtake China in the near future. While GST may contribute to economic growth by improving efficiency and reducing tax-related barriers, it is not a panacea for achieving such significant economic milestones on its own.

(a) European Union

Explanation:

The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) refers to the ongoing negotiations between India and the European Union. This agreement aims to enhance trade and investment flows between the two parties by addressing a range of issues including market access, regulatory cooperation, and investment protection.

(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

Explanation:

The development of Chabahar Port by India is strategically significant for the following reasons:

1. India’s Access to Afghanistan and Central Asia: Chabahar Port, located in Iran, provides India with a direct access route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. This is crucial for enhancing trade and strategic ties with these regions without having to rely on Pakistan's transit routes.
2. Trade with African Countries: While the port could facilitate trade, it is primarily focused on providing a strategic gateway to Central Asia and Afghanistan rather than significantly increasing trade with African countries.
3. Relations with Oil-Producing Arab Countries: The port's main significance is not specifically related to strengthening relations with oil-producing Arab countries, though it could indirectly support regional trade dynamics.
4. Gas Pipeline between Iraq and India: There is no direct connection between Chabahar Port and the facilitation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Therefore, the most relevant importance of developing Chabahar Port is to provide India with a route to access Afghanistan and Central Asia without relying on Pakistan.

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

In India, under the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, and its subsequent amendments, it is legally mandatory for the following entities to report cyber security incidents:

1. Service Providers: They are required to report cyber security incidents as part of their obligations under the IT Act and the rules framed thereunder.
2. Data Centres: They are also required to report cyber security incidents as they play a crucial role in managing and storing data.
3. Body Corporate: These entities, which include companies and other organizations, must report cyber security incidents, especially if the incident involves data breaches or impacts their operations.

Therefore, all three categories—service providers, data centres, and body corporates—are legally mandated to report cyber security incidents in India.

(c) Constitutional Right

Explanation:

In India, the right to vote and the right to be elected are enshrined in the Constitution of India. These rights are provided under various provisions, including Articles 326 and 327 of the Constitution. They are not classified as Fundamental Rights, but they are Constitutional Rights as they are derived from the Constitution itself and are integral to the democratic framework of the country.

(b) To detect gravitational waves

Explanation:

The evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) project is a space-based observatory designed to detect and study gravitational waves, which are ripples in spacetime caused by some of the universe's most violent and energetic processes, such as the merging of black holes or neutron stars. The goal of eLISA is to measure these gravitational waves with high precision, providing new insights into fundamental aspects of astrophysics and cosmology.

(a) 2 only

Explanation:

The Vidyanjali Yojana is an initiative aimed at enhancing the quality of education in government schools through the involvement of the private sector and the community. It encourages private individuals, organizations, and the community to support government schools by providing resources, volunteering, and contributing to the overall improvement of the education system. The scheme focuses on improving educational outcomes by leveraging community support rather than by attracting foreign educational institutions or directly soliciting monetary contributions for infrastructure.

(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.

Explanation:

Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is a program aimed at linking institutions of higher education with local communities to address the development challenges of rural areas through appropriate technologies and solutions. The goal is to enhance the quality of life and standard of living of people in rural areas by leveraging academic institutions' research and knowledge.

(d) 3 only

Explanation:

1. The Election Commission of India is not a five-member body; it is a three-member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs does not decide the election schedule. The Election Commission of India is responsible for scheduling and conducting elections.
3. Election Commission does resolve disputes related to splits and mergers of recognized political parties.

(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

Explanation:

• Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides the highest level of protection to species. It includes animals like tigers, which are considered endangered and receive the maximum legal protection.

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Explanation:

Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the judiciary to examine and determine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions. This ensures that all laws and actions of the government conform to the Constitution.

The correct chronological sequence of the events is:

(d) 3-1-2

Explanation:

1. Second Round Table Conference: Held in 1931.
2. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy: Occurred in 1946.
3. Quit India Movement launched: Started in 1942.

The correct answer is:

(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

Explanation:

There has been a proposal to translocate Asiatic lions from their natural habitat in the Gir Forest National Park in Gujarat to the Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh. This initiative is aimed at establishing a second population of Asiatic lions to ensure their long-term survival and reduce the risk of extinction.

The correct answer is:

(b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly (1) is not necessarily a consequence of the proclamation of President's rule. The Assembly may be dissolved if the President's rule is extended, but it is not an automatic consequence of the initial proclamation.
• Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State (2) is a consequence of the President's rule. When President's rule is imposed, the state government is dismissed, and the Council of Ministers is removed.
• Dissolution of the local bodies (3) is not an automatic consequence of President's rule. Local bodies can continue to function under central rule unless specifically dissolved or superseded.

The correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

• Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (1): This is included under the Right against Exploitation as per Article 23 of the Constitution of India.
• Abolition of untouchability (2): This is covered under Article 17 of the Constitution, which is part of the Right to Equality, not the Right against Exploitation.
• Protection of the interests of minorities (3): This is covered under various provisions for minority protection and is not specifically part of the Right against Exploitation.
• Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines (4): This is also included under the Right against Exploitation as per Article 24 of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is:

(a) Sumatra

Explanation:

Great Nicobar is the southernmost island of the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. Among the given options, Sumatra, which is part of Indonesia, is geographically closest to Great Nicobar. It lies to the southwest of Great Nicobar across the Andaman Sea.

The correct answer is:

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

Explanation:

The Cabinet form of Government is based on the principle of collective responsibility, where the entire Cabinet is collectively responsible to the Parliament for its actions and decisions. This principle ensures that the Government remains accountable to the elected representatives of the people.

The correct answer is:

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Explanation:

Indian federalism is characterized by several features, including an independent judiciary (a), a clear division of powers between the Centre and the States (b), and unequal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha (c). However, Indian federalism is not the result of an agreement among the federating units; it is a result of the constitutional design and provisions laid down by the Constitution of India.