Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination Quizzes: Last 5 year

Let's evaluate each statement:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake:
   • The Jhelum River does pass through Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir. Wular Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, and the Jhelum River flows into it and out of it.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake:
   • Kolleru Lake is a large freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh. However, it is primarily fed by two rivers: the Tammileru and the Budameru. The Krishna River does not directly feed Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake:
   • Kanwar Lake is one of Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lakes, located in the Begusarai district of Bihar, India. It is formed by the meandering actions of the Burhi Gandak River. The river's changing course over time has led to the creation of this oxbow lake. The lake serves as an important habitat for a variety of wildlife, including numerous bird species, and is a designated Ramsar site.

Given this analysis:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, two of the statements given above are correct.

The correct answer is Only two.

Keyword Analysis:

Gandak River and Burhi Gandak River: 

• The Gandak River, also known as the Narayani River in Nepal, originates in the Himalayas in Nepal and flows through Nepal and the Indian state of Bihar before joining the Ganges River near Patna. It is a significant river in the region and serves as an important source of water for irrigation and other uses.
• The Burhi Gandak River is a tributary of the Ganges that flows through the Indian state of Bihar. It originates from the Someshwar Hills in the West Champaran district and flows parallel to the Gandak River before finally joining the Ganges near Khagaria. The Burhi Gandak River is known for its tendency to cause floods during the monsoon season.
• While both rivers are located in the same geographical region and eventually join the Ganges River, they are separate rivers with different origins and courses.

Let’s assess the deciduous nature of each tree:

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus):
   • Evergreen. Jackfruit trees are evergreen, meaning they retain their leaves throughout the year and do not shed them seasonally.
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica):
   • Deciduous. Mahua trees are deciduous, meaning they shed their leaves seasonally, typically during the dry season, and regrow them with the onset of the rainy season.
3. Teak (Tectona grandis):
   • Deciduous. Teak trees are also deciduous. They shed their leaves annually, generally during the dry season, and produce new leaves during the rainy season.

Summary:

• Two of the listed trees (Mahua and Teak) are deciduous.
• Jackfruit is evergreen and does not shed its leaves seasonally.

Thus, the correct answer is:

Only two.

Let's evaluate each statement about agricultural statistics:

1. India has more arable area than China:
   • Correct. India has a larger arable area compared to China. India has a significant amount of land under cultivation, partly due to its vast agricultural practices and relatively larger total area of arable land.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China:
   • Incorrect. The proportion of irrigated area is generally higher in China compared to India. China has invested heavily in irrigation infrastructure and has a higher proportion of its cultivated land under irrigation.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China:
   • Incorrect. The average productivity per hectare in China is generally higher than in India. China has advanced agricultural technology and practices, leading to higher yields per hectare compared to India.

Summary:

• Only one statement is correct: India does have more arable area than China.
• The other two statements are incorrect regarding the proportion of irrigated area and average productivity per hectare.

Thus, the correct answer is:

Only one

he best example of repeated falls in sea level giving rise to present-day extensive marshland is the Rann of Kutch.

Explanation:

• Rann of Kutch: The Rann of Kutch, located in Gujarat, India, is a large salt marsh that has been formed due to repeated changes in sea levels and the deposition of silt. The area is characterized by its extensive marshlands, particularly during the monsoon season when it is inundated and turns into a large wetland. The geological history involving fluctuations in sea levels has contributed significantly to the formation of this region.
• Bhitarkanika Mangroves: These mangroves are formed in a deltaic region where river water meets the sea. They are not primarily a result of repeated falls in sea level but rather the result of delta formation and sediment deposition.
• Marakkanam Salt Pans: These are areas used for salt production and are not primarily marshlands resulting from repeated sea level changes. They are man-made and involve the evaporation of seawater for salt extraction.
• Naupada Swamp: This swamp is not as widely recognized for its formation due to repeated sea level changes as the Rann of Kutch is. It is more a result of local hydrological conditions and not major geological shifts.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Rann of Kutch.

Ilmenite and rutile, which are abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of Titanium.

Explanation:

• Ilmenite (FeTiO₃) and Rutile (TiO₂) are both minerals that are significant sources of titanium. They are commonly found in heavy mineral sands in coastal regions and are used in various applications, including the production of titanium dioxide (TiO₂), which is used as a white pigment in paints, coatings, and plastics.
• Aluminium: This is not directly obtained from ilmenite or rutile. The primary source of aluminium is bauxite.
• Copper: Neither ilmenite nor rutile is a source of copper. Copper is primarily obtained from ores such as chalcopyrite and bornite.
• Iron: While ilmenite contains iron, its primary value is in its titanium content. The main sources of iron are ores such as hematite and magnetite.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Titanium.

About three-fourths of the world's cobalt is produced by the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC).

Explanation:

• Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC): The DRC is the largest producer of cobalt globally, accounting for approximately 60-70% of the world's supply. The country's significant cobalt production is critical for the manufacture of batteries, including those used in electric vehicles.
• Argentina, Botswana, and Kazakhstan are not major producers of cobalt compared to the DRC. While these countries have mining operations for various minerals, their cobalt production is relatively minor on the global scale.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

The Democratic Republic of the Congo.

The Congo Basin includes the following country:

• Cameroon: Cameroon is part of the Congo Basin, which is a vast tropical rainforest area that spans several Central African countries. The Congo Basin is characterized by its extensive rainforests and major river systems, including the Congo River.

Explanation for Other Options:

• Nigeria: Nigeria is not part of the Congo Basin. It is located to the west of the Congo Basin and is more associated with the Niger River basin.
• South Sudan: South Sudan is located to the northeast of the Congo Basin and is not a part of it. It is part of the Nile River basin.
• Uganda: While Uganda is located in East Africa and does have some forested areas, it is not considered part of the Congo Basin. Uganda's major rivers include the Nile and its tributaries.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Cameroon.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the geographical locations of various hills in India:

1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and the Sahyadri Ranges:
   • Incorrect. The Amarkantak Hills are not at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. They are located in the central part of India, in the state of Madhya Pradesh, and are considered the origin of the Narmada and Sone rivers. The Sahyadri Ranges (Western Ghats) are located to the southwest of Amarkantak Hills, while the Vindhya Ranges are to the west of it.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range:
   • Incorrect. The Biligirirangan Hills (Biligiri Ranga Hills) are located in southern Karnataka and are not part of the Satpura Range. The Satpura Range is a separate mountain range situated to the north of the Biligirirangan Hills. The Biligirirangan Hills are actually part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats:
   • Incorrect. The Seshachalam Hills are not part of the Western Ghats; they are located in the Eastern Ghats. The southernmost part of the Western Ghats is represented by the Nilgiri Hills and the Anamalai Hills.

Summary:

• None of the statements are correct. The Amarkantak Hills are not at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges, the Biligirirangan Hills are not part of the Satpura Range, and the Seshachalam Hills are not part of the Western Ghats.

Thus, the correct answer is:

None.

Let's evaluate each statement:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat:
   • The East-West Corridor is part of the larger National Highways Development Project (NHDP), which connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. It does not specifically connect Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar:
   • The Trilateral Highway is an ambitious project aimed at connecting Moreh in Manipur, India, to Mae Sot in Thailand, passing through Myanmar. It does not extend to Chiang Mai, but the intention to improve connectivity in the region stands correct.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China:
   • The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar (BCIM) Economic Corridor aims to improve connectivity between these countries. However, it typically involves connecting Kolkata with Kunming, not Varanasi with Kunming.

Given this analysis:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, none of the statements given above are correct.

The correct answer is None.

Let’s examine each statement:

1. Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production:
   • Correct. India does have uranium deposits, but it relies heavily on coal for electricity production. Coal-fired power plants generate the majority of India’s electricity, largely due to the availability of coal and the existing infrastructure.
2. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity:
   • Incorrect. For nuclear power generation, uranium needs to be enriched, but the level of enrichment required is much lower than 60%. Typically, uranium used in nuclear reactors is enriched to about 3-5% U-235. Enrichment to 60% or higher is generally used for military purposes, such as in nuclear weapons, not for civilian nuclear power generation.

Summary:

• Statement-I is correct: India relies predominantly on coal for its electricity despite having uranium deposits.
• Statement-II is incorrect: The enrichment level required for civilian nuclear power generation is significantly lower than 60%.

Therefore, the correct option is:

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Let’s analyze each statement about marsupials:

1. Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India:
   • Correct. Marsupials are primarily native to Australia and nearby islands, and they are not naturally found in India. In India, you can find a variety of other mammals, but marsupials are not among them.
2. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators:
   • Incorrect. Marsupials are not restricted to montane grasslands nor do they require an environment with no predators. They are adapted to various habitats, including forests, woodlands, and grasslands, primarily in Australia and some nearby regions. The presence or absence of predators is not a specific requirement for their thriving.

Summary:

• Statement-1 is correct: Marsupials are indeed not found naturally in India.
• Statement-2 is incorrect: Marsupials can thrive in various habitats, not specifically montane grasslands, and they are not dependent on the absence of predators.

Therefore, the correct option is:

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), which develops the Global Invasive Species Database, belongs to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Explanation:

• International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN): The IUCN is a global organization that focuses on nature conservation and has various specialist groups working on different aspects of conservation. The ISSG is part of the IUCN’s Species Survival Commission and is responsible for compiling and maintaining the Global Invasive Species Database.
• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP): UNEP focuses on environmental issues and provides leadership and encourages partnership in caring for the environment.
• United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development (WCED): This is known for producing the Brundtland Report on sustainable development but is not involved in the database on invasive species.
• World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF): WWF is a major conservation organization but does not manage the Global Invasive Species Database.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Let's evaluate the activity patterns of each species:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque:
   • This macaque is primarily diurnal, meaning it is most active during the day.
2. Malabar Civet:
   • The Malabar Civet is generally nocturnal. It is most active during the night and early morning.
3. Sambar Deer:
   • Sambar Deer are generally crepuscular, meaning they are most active during dawn and dusk. While they are not strictly nocturnal, they are active during the twilight hours.

Given this analysis:

• The Lion-tailed Macaque is not nocturnal.
• The Malabar Civet is nocturnal.
• The Sambar Deer is crepuscular, not strictly nocturnal.

Therefore, only one of the species listed is generally nocturnal or most active after sunset.

The correct answer is Only one.

The organism that performs the waggle dance to indicate the direction and distance to a food source to others of their kin is the Honeybee.

Explanation:

• Honeybees: Honeybees use the waggle dance as a form of communication to convey the location of food sources to other members of their hive. The dance involves a series of movements and vibrations that provide information about the direction and distance of the food source relative to the position of the sun.
• Butterflies: Butterflies do not use the waggle dance. They find food through their sense of smell and sight, and their behavior is not known to include complex dances for communication.
• Dragonflies: Dragonflies do not perform waggle dances. They are predators that hunt for insects and do not have the complex social structures found in honeybees.
• Wasps: Wasps do not use the waggle dance either. While they are social insects, their communication methods do not include this specific dance for locating food.

Thus, the correct answer is:

Honeybees.

Let's examine each statement about mushrooms:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties:
   • Correct. Many mushrooms have medicinal properties. For example, species like Ganoderma lucidum (reishi) and Cordyceps are used in traditional medicine and have various health benefits.
2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties:
   • Correct. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties, such as Psilocybe species, which contain psilocybin, a compound that can cause hallucinations and altered states of consciousness.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties:
   • Correct. Certain mushrooms have insecticidal properties. For instance, Entomopathogenic fungi like Beauveria bassiana are used in biocontrol to manage insect pests.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties:
   • Correct. Some mushrooms exhibit bioluminescence, meaning they can emit light. An example is Mycena chlorophos, which glows in the dark due to bioluminescence.

Summary:

All four statements are correct regarding the properties of mushrooms:

• Medicinal properties
• Psycho-active properties
• Insecticidal properties
• Bioluminescent properties

Therefore, the correct answer is:

All four.

Let's evaluate each statement about Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground:
   • This statement is incorrect. Indian squirrels typically build their nests in trees rather than making burrows in the ground. They use leaves, twigs, and other materials to construct their nests high up in trees.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground:
   • This statement is correct. Indian squirrels bury their food supplies, such as nuts and seeds, in the ground to prepare for the cold weather when food becomes scarce. This behavior helps ensure they have enough to eat during the winter months.
3. They are omnivorous:
   • This statement is correct. Indian squirrels are omnivorous, meaning they eat a variety of foods including nuts, seeds, fruits, insects, and small animals.

Given this analysis:

• Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Only two.

Let’s examine each statement regarding microorganisms and their growth conditions:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water:
   • Correct. Some microorganisms, specifically extremophiles known as hyperthermophiles, can thrive in extremely high temperatures, including those above the boiling point of water. For example, Thermococcusand Pyrolobus fumarii are known to grow in such extreme conditions.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water:
   • Correct. Certain microorganisms, such as psychrophiles, can grow in very cold environments, including those below the freezing point of water. These organisms are adapted to survive and reproduce in sub-zero temperatures.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3:
   • Correct. Some microorganisms, known as acidophiles, are adapted to thrive in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3. For example, Ferroplasma acidarmanus and Acidobacteria are known to live in extremely acidic conditions.

Summary:

• All three statements are correct. Microorganisms can indeed grow in extreme environments, including those with very high temperatures, very low temperatures, and highly acidic conditions.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

All three.

The animal that makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood is the Orangutan.

Explanation:

• Orangutan: Orangutans are known for their intelligence and use of tools. They have been observed using sticks to extract insects or honey from tree hollows and logs. This behavior demonstrates their ability to use tools to access food resources.
• Fishing Cat: Fishing cats are known for their fishing skills, but they do not use tools for scraping insects from trees.
• Otter: Otters use rocks and other objects to break open shellfish, but they do not typically use sticks to scrape insects from trees.
• Sloth Bear: Sloth bears use their claws and snouts to forage for insects, particularly termites, but they do not use sticks as tools.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Orangutan.

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in the following:

1. Aerosols:
   • HFCs are commonly used as propellants in aerosol sprays, replacing older chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) that were harmful to the ozone layer.
2. Foam agents:
   • HFCs are used in foam blowing agents. They help create foam in various products, including insulation and packaging materials.
3. Fire retardants:
   • While some fire retardants use HFCs, they are more commonly associated with halons or other chemical agents. HFCs are less prevalent in this category compared to aerosols and foam agents.
4. Lubricants:
   • HFCs are not typically used in lubricants. Lubricants generally use different types of chemicals or additives.

Therefore, HFCs are used in three of the categories listed: aerosols, foam agents, and, to a lesser extent, fire retardants.

The correct answer is Only three.

Let's examine each statement regarding Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs):

1. Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable:
   • Incorrect. In India, income distributed by InvITs to their investors is generally tax-exempt at the hands of the investor. However, InvITs themselves are required to pay tax on their income, and the tax treatment can vary based on the type of income (e.g., interest income or dividend). Dividends and other distributions from InvITs to investors are typically tax-exempt, but the specifics can depend on the current tax laws and regulations.
2. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002':
   • Incorrect. InvITs are not specifically recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act). InvITs are regulated under a different set of regulations and are primarily governed by the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, rather than the SARFAESI Act.

Summary:

• Statement-I is incorrect because income distributed by InvITs to their investors is generally tax-exempt, including dividends and interest, based on current tax laws.
• Statement-II is incorrect because InvITs are not recognized as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act but are regulated under the SEBI regulations.

Thus, the correct answer is:

Statement-I is incorrect; Statement-II is correct.

Let's analyze each statement in the context of recent global monetary policy trends:

1. Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes:
   • Correct. In the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic, many central banks around the world, including the Federal Reserve (US), the European Central Bank (ECB), and others, have implemented interest rate hikes as part of their monetary policy to combat inflation, which surged as economies reopened and recovered from the pandemic.
2. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means:
   • Correct. Central banks typically use monetary policy tools, such as adjusting interest rates and controlling money supply, to manage inflation and stabilize prices. By increasing interest rates, they aim to reduce consumer spending and borrowing, which can help control rising consumer prices.

Summary:

• Both statements are correct. Many central banks have indeed raised interest rates recently to address inflationary pressures, and central banks generally use monetary policy to manage and counteract rising consumer prices.
• Statement-II explains the rationale behind the interest rate hikes mentioned in Statement-I. Central banks use such measures as a standard approach to combat inflation.

Thus, the correct answer is:

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change:
   • This statement is correct. Carbon markets, which include cap-and-trade systems and carbon offset markets, are increasingly recognized as effective mechanisms to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. By putting a price on carbon, these markets incentivize businesses and individuals to lower their carbon footprints.
2. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State:
   • This statement is correct. Governments receive revenue through auctioning allowances or taxes. This does not explain statement-I.

Given this analysis:

• Statement-I is correct.
• Statement-II is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Keyword Analysis: Carbon Market

Carbon markets are systems in which countries, companies, or other entities can buy or sell units of greenhouse-gas emissions to meet their environmental goals. These markets are designed to reduce overall carbon emissions and combat climate change by providing economic incentives for reducing emissions. There are two main types of carbon markets: compliance markets and voluntary markets.

1. Compliance Markets:
   • These are regulated by mandatory national, regional, or international carbon reduction regimes.
   • Cap-and-Trade System: A central authority sets a cap on the total amount of greenhouse gases that can be emitted. Companies receive or buy emission allowances, which they can trade with one another as needed. The cap is reduced over time to decrease overall emissions.
     • Example: The European Union Emissions Trading System (EU ETS).
2. Voluntary Markets:
   • These are driven by companies or individuals who voluntarily decide to offset their emissions, often to meet corporate social responsibility goals or to appeal to environmentally conscious consumers.
   • Carbon Offsets: Projects that reduce, avoid, or sequester carbon emissions (such as reforestation projects) generate carbon credits. These credits can be sold to entities looking to offset their emissions.
     • Example: Voluntary Carbon Standard (VCS) projects.

Conducting 'Open Market Operations' is considered to be part of 'sterilization' by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Explanation:

• Sterilization: This refers to the process by which a central bank adjusts the monetary base to counteract the effects of foreign exchange interventions on the domestic money supply. Essentially, it involves measures to neutralize or offset the impact of large inflows or outflows of foreign currency on the money supply and interest rates.
• Conducting 'Open Market Operations': This activity involves the buying and selling of government securities in the open market. When the RBI buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, and when it sells securities, it absorbs money from the banking system. This is a key tool used for sterilization to manage liquidity and control inflationary pressures.

Other Options:

• Oversight of settlement and payment systems: This is part of the RBI’s role in ensuring the stability and efficiency of the payment and settlement systems but is not related to sterilization.
• Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments: While important, this activity focuses on managing government debt and liquidity rather than sterilizing monetary impacts.
• Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions: This involves supervising and regulating non-banking financial entities but does not directly pertain to sterilization.

Thus, the correct answer is:

Conducting 'Open Market Operations'.

In the context of capital markets, the following are the classifications:

1. Government Bond Market: This is part of the capital market. Government bonds are long-term debt instruments issued by the government to raise funds, and they fall under the category of securities traded in the capital market.
2. Call Money Market: This is part of the money market. The call money market deals with short-term borrowing and lending of funds, typically overnight, and is not considered part of the capital market.
3. Treasury Bill Market: This is part of the money market. Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government securities with maturities of less than one year, and they are traded in the money market.
4. Stock Market: This is part of the capital market. The stock market involves the trading of equities or shares, which are long-term financial instruments, and it falls under the capital market.

Summary:

• Capital Markets: Government Bond Market and Stock Market.
• Money Markets: Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market.

Thus, the correct answer is:

Only two.

The concept of "Small Farmer Large Field" is best described by:

Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations.

Explanation:

• Small Farmer Large Field is an approach where individual small or marginal farmers form cooperatives or groups to work collectively. This allows them to achieve economies of scale and improve their efficiency by coordinating and harmonizing their agricultural activities, such as planting, harvesting, and marketing.

This approach helps small farmers overcome the challenges posed by their small landholdings and access better resources, technology, and markets by working together.

Summary of Other Options:

1. Resettlement of a large number of people: This describes a form of resettlement and collective farming but is not specifically related to the concept of "Small Farmer Large Field."
2. Contract with a corporate body: This describes a contract farming arrangement where farmers surrender their land to a corporate entity for a fixed term, which is different from the concept of "Small Farmer Large Field."
3. Company extends loans and technical knowledge: This describes an approach where a company supports small farmers through loans and technical support for producing specific commodities, which is also different from the concept of "Small Farmer Large Field."

Thus, the best description for "Small Farmer Large Field" is:

Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations.

Let's analyze each statement about niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds:
   • This statement is correct. The Government of India does provide a Minimum Support Price (MSP) for niger seeds to ensure farmers receive a guaranteed price for their produce, protecting them from price fluctuations.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop:
   • This statement is correct. Niger is typically cultivated as a Kharif crop, which means it is sown in the rainy season (June to September) and harvested in the post-monsoon season.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking:
   • This statement is correct. Niger seed oil is traditionally used by some tribal communities in India for cooking due to its nutritional value and health benefits.

Given this analysis:

• Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

The correct answer is All three.

Let's analyze each asset to determine if it is considered an intangible investment:

1. Brand recognition:
   • Intangible. Brand recognition is an intangible asset as it represents the value of a brand’s reputation and customer recognition, which cannot be physically touched or seen.
2. Inventory:
   • Tangible. Inventory refers to physical goods or materials held by a company for sale or production, and is considered a tangible asset.
3. Intellectual property:
   • Intangible. Intellectual property (such as patents, copyrights, and trademarks) is an intangible asset as it represents legal rights and protections for innovations and creations.
4. Mailing list of clients:
   • Intangible. A mailing list of clients is considered an intangible asset because it represents valuable information about customer contacts, which is not a physical asset.

Summary:

• Intangible investments: Brand recognition, Intellectual property, Mailing list of clients.
• Tangible investments: Inventory.

Thus, the number of intangible investments is:

Three.

The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative aims to accelerate progress towards the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by investing in infrastructure projects that have a significant impact on sustainable development. The sectors it focuses on include:

1. Affordable Housing:
   • S3i invests in affordable housing projects to ensure that everyone has access to safe, affordable, and sustainable housing. This is crucial for improving living conditions and reducing poverty.
2. Mass Rapid Transport:
   • Investment in mass rapid transport systems helps reduce traffic congestion, lower greenhouse gas emissions, and provide efficient public transportation options. This supports sustainable urban development and reduces the environmental impact of transportation.
3. Health Care:
   • By investing in healthcare infrastructure, S3i aims to improve access to quality health services, which is essential for enhancing public health and achieving the SDGs related to health and well-being.
4. Renewable Energy:
   • S3i focuses on renewable energy projects to promote clean and sustainable energy sources. This helps reduce reliance on fossil fuels, decrease carbon emissions, and support the transition to a low-carbon economy.

Given that the S3i initiative targets all four sectors, the correct answer is All four.

The correct option is:

Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1.

Explanation:

1. Statement-I: In India, prisons are indeed managed by State Governments, which have the authority to create and enforce their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. The administration of prisons falls under the purview of the respective State Governments as part of their responsibilities.
2. Statement-II: The Prisons Act, 1894, governs the administration of prisons in India. This Act does indeed place the management and control of prisons under the Provincial (State) Governments. The Act provides a framework for prison administration but allows State Governments to establish their own specific rules and regulations.

Thus, both statements are accurate and Statement-2 explains why Statement-1 is correct, as the Prisons Act, 1894, ensures that the control of prisons is under the Provincial (State) Governments, which aligns with the management described in Statement-1.

The statement that best reflects the chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country is:

It defines and limits the powers of government.

Explanation:

• Definition and Limitation of Powers: The primary role of a constitution is to define the structure, powers, and functions of government institutions. It outlines the powers and responsibilities of different branches of government and establishes checks and balances to prevent the abuse of power. By defining and limiting these powers, a constitution helps ensure that governance operates within a framework of law and order.
• Other Aspects:
  • Determines Objectives for Laws: While a constitution may outline broad principles and objectives, its main purpose is more about the structure and limits of governmental power rather than detailing specific laws.
  • Creation of Political Offices and Government: Although constitutions do establish the framework for political offices and the government, this is a means to the end of defining and limiting government power.
  • Securing Social Justice, Equality, and Security: While constitutions often include provisions to promote social justice, equality, and security, these are typically seen as goals that arise from the broader purpose of defining and limiting government powers.

Therefore, the defining and limiting of governmental powers is the core purpose of a constitution, providing the foundational legal structure for a country.

This Question was removed by UPSC due to multiple answer possible.

However, 42nd CAA (b) can be best possible answer for single choice answer. Following points can be noted for explanation:

(i) The Constitutional Amendment widely believed to have been enacted in India to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights is the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

This amendment, passed during the Emergency in 1976, made significant changes to the Constitution, including amendments to various Fundamental Rights provisions. It was criticized for diluting Fundamental Rights and expanding governmental powers, which were seen as a reaction to judicial interpretations that had expanded the scope and protection of Fundamental Rights.

Therefore, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act is associated with attempts to curtail judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights in India.

(ii) The first Constitutional Amendment Act in India was enacted in 1951. It primarily dealt with the changes required to address the provisions related to land reforms and the compensation for acquisition of property under Article 31 of the Constitution.

Key provisions of the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act include:

1. Article 31A: Introduced to save laws providing for the acquisition of estates, including the abolition or modification of land tenures, from being challenged on the grounds of violation of Fundamental Rights.
2. Article 31B: Inserted to validate certain Acts and Regulations listed in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution, shielding them from judicial review.

These amendments were part of the broader effort to implement land reforms and socio-economic changes in the country, which were seen as crucial for achieving social justice and equality.

Thus, the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 marked an important step in adapting the Constitution to address pressing social and economic issues of the time.

(iii) The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 1978 during the tenure of the Janata Party government. It brought several significant changes to the Indian Constitution, primarily aimed at rolling back some of the controversial provisions introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act during the Emergency period. The key provisions and changes brought about by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act include:

1. Restoration of Fundamental Rights: It restored several Fundamental Rights that had been curtailed or restricted by the 42nd Amendment Act. Notably, it restored the right to property as a legal right (though it remained no longer a Fundamental Right but a legal right).
2. Judicial Review: It limited the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution by prohibiting amendments that infringe upon the "basic structure" of the Constitution, as interpreted by the Supreme Court.
3. Election of President and Vice-President: It restored the original provisions related to the election of President and Vice-President, reversing changes made by the 42nd Amendment Act.
4. Emergency Provisions: It modified the provisions related to the proclamation of Emergency under Articles 352, 356, and 360, placing stricter limitations on the executive's power during emergencies.
5. Other Changes: It made various other changes related to the functioning of the judiciary, electoral laws, and the governance structure.

Overall, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act was a significant step towards restoring and reaffirming the original principles and values of the Constitution, especially in terms of protecting Fundamental Rights and ensuring checks and balances in the exercise of governmental power.

(iv) The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in 2002 and it primarily dealt with the issue of education. Here are the key provisions of the 86th Constitutional Amendment:

1. Article 21A: This amendment inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, which provides for free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right. The state is responsible for providing this education.
2. Responsibility of Parents: The amendment also added a clause to Article 51A, making it a fundamental duty of parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children between the ages of six and fourteen years.

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act aimed to strengthen the education system in India by making elementary education a fundamental right, thereby ensuring that every child has access to basic education. This was seen as a crucial step towards achieving universal primary education and promoting social justice.

In summary, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 introduced Article 21A, which guarantees the right to free and compulsory education for children in India, marking a significant milestone in the realm of education rights.

Among the organizations listed:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes - Before the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was a statutory body established under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
   • The 102nd Amendment Act elevated the status of the NCBC from a statutory body to a constitutional body. This change was significant because it gave the NCBC a more authoritative and permanent status under the Constitution of India.
   • Article 338B: The amendment introduced Article 338B into the Constitution, which formally established the National Commission for Backward Classes as a constitutional body.
2. The National Human Rights Commission - This is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, not a constitutional body.
3. The National Law Commission - This is also a statutory body, created by an executive order. It does not have constitutional status.
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission - This is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and not a constitutional body.

Constitutional bodies are those that are established by the Constitution of India. They include the Election Commission, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Union Public Service Commission, and the State Public Service Commissions, among others.

Answer: Only one of the listed bodies is a constitutional body. NCBC.

Let's evaluate each of the statements regarding the President of India and the related constitutional provisions:

1. "If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid."
   • This statement is incorrect. If the election of the President is declared void, the acts done by the President before the declaration of the void election are not invalidated. The principle of "ex post facto" (acts done before a decision does not affect their validity) applies to the President's actions.
2. "Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place."
   • This statement is incorrect. The election of the President of India cannot be postponed due to the dissolution of Legislative Assemblies or pending elections. The election of the President is conducted as scheduled according to the Constitution, and the process continues regardless of state legislative elections.
3. "When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent."
   • This statement is incorrect.The President can exercise Pocket veto power as the Constitution does not prescribe any time-limit within which he has to take the decision with respect to a bill presented to him for his assent.

Answer: None.

Let's analyze the statements regarding Finance Bills and Money Bills in the Indian Parliament:

1. "When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill."
   • This statement is incorrect. The Finance Bill is a type of Money Bill that deals with taxation and government spending. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on the Finance Bill. It does not have the power to amend or reject it.
2. "When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations."
   • This statement is Correct. According to Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on it. The Lok Sabha is not obliged to accept these recommendations.
3. "In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill."
   • This statement is Correct. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each House separately.

Answer: Only two statements are correct.

Let’s evaluate the statements regarding a 'Community Reserve' under Indian wildlife conservation laws:

1. "Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve', the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest."
   • This statement is incorrect. In a Community Reserve, the governing authority is typically a management committee appointed by the State Government, and not directly the Chief Wildlife Warden. The Chief Wildlife Warden may have a supervisory role, but the management of the Community Reserve is handled by this committee.
2. "Hunting is not allowed in such area."
   • This statement is incorrect. Community reserves are protected areas where hunting, deforestation, and other activities harmful to wildlife are regulated. The extent of restrictions can vary depending on local agreements and conservation needs.
3. "People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce."
   • This statement is correct. In a Community Reserve, local communities are often permitted to collect non-timber forest produce, as the aim is to involve them in conservation efforts while allowing them to sustain their livelihoods.
4. "People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices."
   • This statement is correct. Traditional agricultural practices are generally allowed in Community Reserves as part of integrating conservation with local livelihoods.

Answer: Two of the statements are correct.

Let’s analyze each statement related to Scheduled Areas in India:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President:
   • Correct. The declaration of Scheduled Areas is made through a Presidential Order. This is done under the provisions of the Constitution of India, specifically under Article 244(1) and Article 244(2), which allow the President to declare areas as Scheduled Areas and to alter such areas.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block:
   • Incorrect. Scheduled Areas are not strictly defined by administrative units like districts or blocks. They are defined by the President's order and can encompass various administrative units, including districts, talukas, and blocks. The concept of Scheduled Areas is more related to the protection and development of tribal communities rather than specific administrative boundaries.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States:
   • Correct. The Chief Ministers of states with Scheduled Areas are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of these areas. This requirement helps in monitoring and ensuring that the special provisions and protections for Scheduled Areas and their tribal populations are properly implemented.

Summary:

• Only two statements are correct:
  • The notification of Scheduled Areas through a Presidential Order.
  • The requirement for Chief Ministers to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry.

The statement regarding administrative units is not strictly accurate.

Let’s analyze each statement:

1. Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration:
   • Correct. The Supreme Court has indeed held that while reservations under Article 16(4) (which provides for reservations in public employment for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) are permissible, they must be balanced with Article 335, which mandates that the efficiency of administration must be maintained. Therefore, reservation policies cannot compromise the administrative efficiency.
2. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration':
   • Incorrect. Article 335 does not define 'efficiency of administration'. Instead, it provides that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts should be considered consistent with the maintenance of the efficiency of administration. The specific term 'efficiency of administration' is not defined in Article 335 but is a principle that needs to be balanced with reservation policies.

Summary:

• Statement-I is correct: It correctly describes the relationship between Article 16(4) and Article 335 as interpreted by the Supreme Court.
• Statement-II is incorrect: Article 335 does not define 'efficiency of administration'; it only stipulates that reservation policies should not affect the efficiency of administration.

Therefore, the correct option is:

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Dhanyakataka, also known as Amaravati, was a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghikas and is located in the present-day state of Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation:

• Andhra: Dhanyakataka (Amaravati) is situated in the Krishna River Valley in Andhra Pradesh. It was a major center of Buddhism, especially under the Mahasanghika sect, and is famous for its stupas and Buddhist relics.
• Gandhara: This region corresponds to parts of present-day Pakistan and Afghanistan and was known for its Greco-Buddhist art. It is not the location of Dhanyakataka.
• Kalinga: This region roughly corresponds to the present-day state of Odisha. While Kalinga has its own significant Buddhist history, it is not where Dhanyakataka is located.
• Magadha: This region corresponds to parts of present-day Bihar and was a central area for early Buddhism, particularly associated with the life of Buddha and the Mauryan Empire. However, Dhanyakataka is not located here.

Therefore, Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghikas, was located in:

Andhra.

Let's analyze each of the statements regarding Stupas in ancient India:

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin: This statement is incorrect. While Stupas are most commonly associated with Buddhism and were extensively developed and popularized by Buddhists, the concept of building mounds or tumuli over relics existed in pre-Buddhist traditions in India. These mounds were initially built over the remains of important persons or over sacred relics.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics: This statement is correct. Stupas typically served as repositories for relics of the Buddha, his disciples, or other important figures in Buddhism. These relics could be physical remains such as bones or ashes, or objects associated with the Buddha.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition: This statement is correct. Stupas were not only repositories of relics but also served as commemorative monuments. They were built to commemorate important events in the life of the Buddha, to mark significant locations, or as votive offerings by devotees.

Given this analysis, two of the statements are correct.

So, the correct answer is: Only two.

Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well known as ports in ancient South India.

• Korkai: Located in present-day Tamil Nadu, Korkai was an ancient port city and the capital of the early Pandyan Kingdom. It was an important center for pearl fishing and trade.
• Poompuhar: Also known as Kaveripattinam, Poompuhar was a significant port city of the Chola dynasty. It was located at the mouth of the Kaveri River and served as a bustling trade center.
• Muchiri: Known in historical texts as Muziris, Muchiri was an ancient seaport and urban center on the Malabar Coast in present-day Kerala. It was a crucial hub for trade between the Roman Empire and India.

So, the correct answer is ports.

"Vattakirutal" is a term from ancient Tamil literature, particularly from the Sangam period, which refers to the practice where a defeated king commits ritual suicide by starving himself to death. This was seen as a means to preserve his honor in the face of defeat and to avoid the disgrace associated with being captured or living as a defeated ruler.

Context and Significance in Sangam Literature

1. Cultural and Historical Background:
   • The Sangam period (approximately 300 BCE to 300 CE) is a significant era in the history of South India, noted for its rich literary output and the flourishing of Tamil culture.
   • During this time, the concept of honor and valor was deeply ingrained in the social fabric, especially among the ruling class. Kings and warriors were expected to display exceptional bravery and to prefer death over dishonor.
2. Meaning of Vattakirutal:
   • The term "Vattakirutal" derives from the Tamil words "vatta" (circle) and "kirutal" (to die), symbolizing the idea of completing one's life cycle through an act of voluntary death.
   • It specifically referred to a ritual suicide method where the defeated king would abstain from food and drink until death.
3. Ritual Significance:
   • This practice was more than just a personal act; it was steeped in ritualistic importance and was seen as a noble way to uphold the dignity of the ruler and his lineage.
   • The act of starving oneself to death was viewed as a way to avoid the humiliation that could come from being captured by the enemy or living under their mercy.
4. Literary References:
   • Sangam literature, including works like the Purananuru and the Akananuru, often highlight themes of valor, honor, and the warrior code. These texts provide insights into the expectations placed on rulers and warriors, including the ultimate sacrifice through Vattakirutal.
   • For example, the Purananuru contains poems that describe the emotions and circumstances leading to such a decision, reflecting the societal values and pressures of that era.
5. Examples from Sangam Texts:
   • There are specific references to kings who, upon facing inevitable defeat, chose to end their lives through Vattakirutal. These acts were recorded by poets who praised the kings' adherence to the code of honor.
   • These poems often evoke a sense of tragic heroism, celebrating the kings' commitment to their principles even in the face of death.

Conclusion

Vattakirutal, as depicted in Sangam literature, underscores the importance of honor and valor in ancient Tamil society. It illustrates how deeply these values were embedded in the cultural consciousness, influencing the actions and decisions of rulers. This practice, while extreme, was seen as a way for kings to maintain their dignity and leave a legacy of courage and unwavering adherence to their principles.

To determine how many of the listed dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD, we need to examine the historical timelines of each dynasty:

1. Hoysala: The Hoysala dynasty emerged as a significant power in the 10th century AD. While its origins can be traced back to the 8th century, it did not establish itself as a prominent kingdom until later.
2. Gahadavala: The Gahadavala dynasty rose to prominence in the late 11th century AD. They were not established as a significant ruling power in the early eighth century.
3. Kakatiya: The Kakatiya dynasty began to gain prominence in the 12th century AD. Their early history goes back to the 8th century, but they did not establish a significant kingdom until much later.
4. Yadava: The Seuna (Yadava) dynasty became prominent in the 12th and 13th centuries AD. Their rule as a significant power did not start in the early eighth century.

Given these historical timelines, none of these dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.

So, the correct answer is: None.

The texts "Devichandragupta," "Hammira-Mahakavya," "Milinda-panha," and "Nitivakyamrita" are significant works in Indian literature, each from different periods and literary traditions. Here's a brief overview of each:

1. Devichandragupta:
   • Author: Vishakhadatta
   • Period: Likely between the 7th and 9th centuries AD.
   • Language: Sanskrit
   • Genre: Historical drama
   • Content: This play deals with the story of King Ramagupta, the elder brother of the famous Gupta emperor Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya). It narrates the events leading to Chandragupta's rise to power and his marriage to Dhruvadevi.
2. Hammira-Mahakavya:
   • Author: Nayachandra Suri
   • Period: 14th century AD
   • Language: Sanskrit
   • Genre: Epic poetry
   • Content: This epic poem glorifies the life and deeds of Hammiradeva, a ruler of the Chauhan dynasty in Rajasthan. It highlights his valor, administrative skills, and ultimately, his tragic defeat.
3. Milinda-panha (Questions of King Milinda):
   • Author: Attributed to Nāgasena
   • Period: Around the 1st century BC
   • Language: Pali
   • Genre: Dialogues or religious text
   • Content: This text records the dialogues between the Greek King Menander I (Milinda) and the Buddhist monk Nāgasena. It addresses various philosophical and doctrinal questions about Buddhism.
4. Nitivakyamrita:
   • Author: Somadeva Suri
   • Period: 10th century AD
   • Language: Sanskrit
   • Genre: Treatise on polity and ethics
   • Content: This work focuses on principles of statecraft, ethics, and moral conduct. It offers guidance on governance, administration, and the duties of a king.

Each of these texts provides valuable insights into different aspects of ancient and medieval Indian culture, ranging from historical events and philosophical debates to political and ethical treatises.

The statement reflects the core belief of Jainism, which posits that souls (jivas) are present not only in living beings like animals and plants but also in non-living entities such as rocks, water, and other natural objects. This belief is integral to the Jain philosophy and influences various aspects of Jain practice and ethics.

Core Beliefs of Jainism Related to Souls

1. Universal Presence of Souls:
   • Jainism asserts that souls (jivas) are ubiquitous, inhabiting not only living beings but also inanimate objects. This universal presence of souls extends to earth, water, fire, air, and vegetation.
   • The belief in the existence of souls in non-living entities is unique to Jainism among Indian religions.
2. Ahimsa (Non-Violence):
   • The principle of ahimsa, or non-violence, is central to Jainism. Because Jains believe that all entities possess souls, they advocate for non-violence towards all forms of life, including the smallest microorganisms.
   • This extends to non-living entities that are believed to have souls. Jains practice great care to avoid harming even minute particles of earth, water, fire, air, and plants.
3. Types of Souls:
   • Jain texts classify souls based on the number of senses they possess. Non-living entities are considered to have one-sense souls (ekendriya jiva), which means they have the sense of touch.
   • Living beings are classified into categories ranging from one-sense beings like plants to five-sense beings like humans and animals.
4. Respect for All Life Forms:
   • Jainism teaches that all life forms, regardless of their physical manifestation, have intrinsic value and deserve respect.
   • This belief leads to practices such as strict vegetarianism, carefulness in daily activities to avoid causing harm to any soul, and rituals that emphasize purity and non-violence.

Philosophical Foundations

1. Jiva and Ajiva:
   • Jain metaphysics divides reality into two broad categories: jiva (soul) and ajiva (non-soul). Jiva represents consciousness, while ajiva includes matter, time, space, and other non-sentient entities.
   • The interaction between jiva and ajiva forms the basis of existence and the cycle of birth, death, and rebirth.
2. Karma Theory:
   • Jainism has a unique interpretation of karma, which is seen as a form of subtle matter that binds to the soul and influences its reincarnations.
   • The purity of the soul and its liberation (moksha) depend on the reduction and elimination of karmic particles, achieved through ethical living and strict adherence to non-violence.

Jain Practices Reflecting These Beliefs

1. Careful Living:
   • Jains are known for their meticulous practices to avoid harming any living being, which includes actions such as wearing masks to prevent inhaling small organisms, sweeping the ground before walking, and boiling water before drinking it to kill any microorganisms.
2. Religious and Ritual Practices:
   • Jain rituals and religious practices emphasize purity and non-violence. For example, Jains perform ritual fasting, meditation, and repentance (pratikraman) to purify their souls and minimize karmic bondage.
3. Monastic Discipline:
   • Jain monks and nuns adhere to stringent codes of conduct that include renouncing all forms of violence and practicing extreme asceticism to attain spiritual purity and liberation.

Conclusion

The belief that souls are present in all forms of life, including inanimate objects, is a distinguishing feature of Jainism. This view fundamentally shapes Jain ethics, practices, and worldview, setting it apart from other religious traditions in ancient India such as Buddhism, Shaivism, and Vaishnavism. Through its emphasis on universal non-violence and respect for all souls, Jainism offers a unique perspective on the interconnectedness and sanctity of all existence.

The ruler of medieval Gujarat who surrendered Diu to the Portuguese was Bahadur Shah.

Key Points:

• Bahadur Shah (reigned 1526–1537) was the Sultan of Gujarat during the early 16th century.
• In 1535, he signed a treaty with the Portuguese, which resulted in the surrender of the fort of Diu to the Portuguese. This agreement was part of a broader diplomatic and military strategy.
• The Portuguese had been expanding their influence in the Indian Ocean and sought control over strategic locations. Diu, with its important port and strategic location, was crucial for Portuguese control over trade routes.
• Bahadur Shah's decision to surrender Diu was influenced by the complex geopolitical dynamics of the time, including conflicts with neighboring rulers and the pressures from the expanding Portuguese empire.

Therefore, Bahadur Shah is the ruler who surrendered Diu to the Portuguese.

The Governor General of Bengal was designated as the Governor General of India by the Charter Act of 1833.

Key Points:

• Charter Act of 1833: This act was a significant piece of legislation that restructured the British administration in India. It designated the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India, thus consolidating administrative control over the entire subcontinent.
• Purpose: The act aimed to centralize and streamline the administration of British India, reflecting the growing importance of a unified administrative structure for managing the vast territories under British control.
• Impact: The appointment of the Governor General of India was part of broader reforms intended to improve governance and oversight, addressing administrative challenges and enhancing the efficiency of the British East India Company's operations.

Therefore, the correct answer is the Charter Act of 1833.

Let’s review each statement related to the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY):

1. "It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments."
   • This statement is incorrect. The Janani Suraksha Yojana is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, rather than being solely a State Health Department intervention.
2. "Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women."
   • This statement is correct. One of the primary objectives of JSY is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by ensuring that pregnant women, especially from poor and marginalized communities, receive adequate care during pregnancy and childbirth.
3. "It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women."
   • This statement is correct. The scheme provides financial incentives to encourage institutional deliveries, aiming to improve the safety of childbirth by promoting deliveries in health facilities.
4. "Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age."
   • This statement is incorrect. The Janani Suraksha Yojana specifically focuses on promoting institutional deliveries and improving maternal health, not directly on providing public health facilities to sick infants.

Answer: Only two statements are correct.

Let's evaluate the statements about carbon fibers:

1. "Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts."
   • This statement is correct. Carbon fibers are widely used in various industries, including automotive and aerospace, due to their high strength-to-weight ratio and stiffness. They are employed in manufacturing components like body panels, structural parts, and other high-performance elements in both automobiles and aircraft.
2. "Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled."
   • This statement is incorrect. While recycling carbon fibers is more challenging compared to some other materials, there are ongoing research and technologies developing methods to recycle carbon fibers. These methods include mechanical processes and chemical recycling approaches, though the recycling of carbon fibers is not as widespread as some other materials.

Answer: Only statement 1 is correct.

Let's evaluate the requirement of an accelerometer for each of the actions described:

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
   • Accelerometer required: Yes. Accelerometers are used in automotive safety systems to detect rapid deceleration or collision forces. When a crash is detected, the accelerometer triggers the deployment of airbags to protect the occupants.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive.
   • Accelerometer required: Yes. Accelerometers are used in laptops to detect sudden changes in motion, such as a free fall. This detection can trigger the hard drive to park its read/write heads to prevent damage to the drive during impact.
3. Detection of the tilt of a smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.
   • Accelerometer required: Yes. Accelerometers in smartphones detect the orientation and tilt of the device, allowing the screen to automatically rotate between portrait and landscape modes based on how the phone is held.

Answer: All three actions require the function of an accelerometer.

Let's evaluate the requirement of an accelerometer for each of the actions described:

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
   • Accelerometer required: Yes. Accelerometers are used in automotive safety systems to detect rapid deceleration or collision forces. When a crash is detected, the accelerometer triggers the deployment of airbags to protect the occupants.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive.
   • Accelerometer required: Yes. Accelerometers are used in laptops to detect sudden changes in motion, such as a free fall. This detection can trigger the hard drive to park its read/write heads to prevent damage to the drive during impact.
3. Detection of the tilt of a smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.
   • Accelerometer required: Yes. Accelerometers in smartphones detect the orientation and tilt of the device, allowing the screen to automatically rotate between portrait and landscape modes based on how the phone is held.

Answer: All three actions require the function of an accelerometer.

Among the countries listed, Japan has its own satellite navigation system. Japan's satellite navigation system is known as QZSS (Quasi-Zenith Satellite System).

Here's a brief overview of the satellite navigation systems of the mentioned countries:

• Australia: Australia does not have its own satellite navigation system. It relies on global systems like GPS (Global Positioning System).
• Canada: Canada does not have its own satellite navigation system either. It also depends on global systems like GPS.
• Israel: Israel does not have its own satellite navigation system. It uses global systems such as GPS for navigation purposes.
• Japan: Japan operates the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS), which is designed to enhance GPS signals and improve accuracy, particularly in urban and mountainous areas where GPS signals may be weak.

Answer: Japan

Let's examine each statement to determine its accuracy:

1. "Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight."
   • Incorrect. Ballistic missiles are not jet-propelled; they are typically rocket-propelled and follow a ballistic trajectory, which involves a powered phase and a free-fall phase. Cruise missiles, on the other hand, are jet-propelled throughout their flight, maintaining subsonic or supersonic speeds during their entire journey. They do not use rocket propulsion during the cruise phase.
2. "Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile."
   • Incorrect. Agni-V is actually an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km and is not a cruise missile. BrahMos, on the other hand, is a supersonic cruise missile and is not a ballistic missile. BrahMos uses solid and liquid fuel in its first and second stages respectively.

Answer: Neither of the statements is correct.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding green hydrogen:

1. "It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion."
   • Correct. Green hydrogen can be used in internal combustion engines. Hydrogen combustion in internal combustion engines is technically feasible, but it is not widely implemented compared to other uses of hydrogen, such as in fuel cells.
2. "It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation."
   • Correct. Green hydrogen can be blended with natural gas to be used for heat and power generation. This blend can help reduce carbon emissions compared to using natural gas alone.
3. "It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles."
   • Correct. Green hydrogen is commonly used in hydrogen fuel cells to power electric vehicles. Fuel cells combine hydrogen with oxygen to produce electricity, with water as the only byproduct.

Answer: All three statements are correct.

Let's determine which of the listed countries share a land border with Ukraine:

1. Bulgaria - Does not share a land border with Ukraine.
2. Czech Republic - Does not share a land border with Ukraine.
3. Hungary - Shares a land border with Ukraine.
4. Latvia - Does not share a land border with Ukraine.
5. Lithuania - Does not share a land border with Ukraine.
6. Romania - Shares a land border with Ukraine.

The countries from the list that share a land border with Ukraine are Hungary and Romania.

Answer: Only two of the listed countries share a land border with Ukraine.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the Earth's atmosphere and insolation:

1. "The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles."
   • Incorrect. While the equator does receive significantly more insolation compared to the poles due to the direct overhead sun, it is not as extreme as 10 times. The actual ratio varies but is closer to 2 to 3 times more at the equator compared to the poles.
2. "Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation."
   • Incorrect. Infrared rays are not the majority of insolation; they make up a smaller portion of the total solar radiation. Most insolation is in the visible spectrum, with infrared rays making up less than half.
3. "Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere."
   • Correct. Infrared radiation is indeed absorbed by water vapor, which is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. This absorption of infrared radiation by greenhouse gases like water vapor contributes to the greenhouse effect and helps to warm the Earth's surface.
4. "Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation."
   • Incorrect. Infrared waves are not part of the visible spectrum. The visible spectrum covers wavelengths from about 400 to 700 nanometers, whereas infrared radiation has longer wavelengths than visible light and falls outside this range.

Answer: The correct statement is that infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapor that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.

Let's analyze the statements regarding the soil in tropical rain forests:

1. Statement-I: "The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients."
   • Incorrect. The soil in tropical rain forests is generally not rich in nutrients. It is often described as nutrient-poor due to heavy rainfall that leaches away nutrients from the soil. However, the lush vegetation and high rate of decomposition contribute to a rapid recycling of nutrients.
2. Statement-II: "The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly."
   • Correct. The high temperatures and abundant moisture in tropical rain forests do indeed cause dead organic matter to decompose quickly. This rapid decomposition contributes to the high turnover rate of organic material, although the nutrients are quickly taken up by plants or washed away.

Analysis:

• Statement-I is incorrect because the soil in tropical rain forests is generally poor in nutrients due to leaching.
• Statement-II is correct because high temperatures and moisture do cause rapid decomposition of organic matter.

Answer: Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Let's analyze each statement regarding temperature contrasts and specific heat:

1. Statement-I: "The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter."
   • Incorrect. The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is generally greater during winter, not summer. In summer, both land and ocean temperatures rise, reducing the contrast between them. However, in winter, the land cools down much faster than the oceans, leading to a greater contrast in temperature.
2. Statement-II: "The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface."
   • Correct. Water has a higher specific heat capacity than land surfaces. This means water can absorb and release heat more slowly compared to land, which heats up and cools down more quickly.

Analysis:

• Statement-I is incorrect because the temperature contrast is greater during winter.
• Statement-II is correct because water's specific heat is indeed higher than that of land.

Answer: Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the behavior of P waves and S waves in a seismograph:

1. "In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves."
   • Correct. P waves (Primary waves) are the first to be detected by seismographs because they travel faster than S waves (Secondary waves). As a result, P waves arrive at seismograph stations before S waves.
2. "In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation."
   • Correct. In P waves, particles vibrate in the same direction as the wave is traveling, causing compression and rarefaction (longitudinal waves). In contrast, S waves cause particles to vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, resulting in a side-to-side or up-and-down motion (transverse waves).

Answer: Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding coal-based thermal power plants in India:

1. "None of them uses seawater."
   • Incorrect. Some coal-based thermal power plants in India, particularly those located in coastal regions, use seawater for cooling purposes. For instance, plants like those in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu and Gujarat often use seawater due to the availability of water resources.
2. "None of them is set up in a water-stressed district."
   • Incorrect. Several coal-based thermal power plants in India are located in water-stressed regions. For example, many plants are situated in areas where water scarcity is a significant issue, which often leads to conflicts over water usage.
3. "None of them is privately owned."
   • Incorrect. Many coal-based thermal power plants in India are privately owned. The power sector in India includes a mix of public and private ownership. Companies like Adani, Tata Power, and JSW Energy have significant investments in coal-based power generation.

Answer: None of the statements is correct.

The 'Wolbachia method' is associated with:

Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes.

Here's a brief explanation:

• Wolbachia method involves using the Wolbachia bacteria, which is a type of bacteria that infects many insects, including mosquitoes. When mosquitoes are infected with Wolbachia, it affects their ability to transmit diseases such as dengue fever, Zika virus, and chikungunya. The bacteria interfere with the mosquito's reproductive system and can also prevent the viruses from replicating within the mosquito, thus reducing the spread of these diseases.

Answer: Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes.

‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to:

Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go.

Here's why:

• Aerial metagenomics involves the collection and analysis of DNA present in the air. This can provide insights into the microbial communities present in the atmosphere, including bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms. By capturing air samples and analyzing the DNA, researchers can study the biodiversity and dynamics of microbial populations in various environments.

The other options do not directly relate to the concept of aerial metagenomics:

• Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat refers more to ornithological genetic studies, not to the metagenomics of airborne samples.
• Using airborne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals pertains to wildlife tracking and sample collection methods, not to metagenomics.
• Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies involves using drones for environmental sampling, but it is not specific to the analysis of airborne DNA.

Answer: Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go.

‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the context of:

Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna.

Here's why:

• Microsatellite DNA refers to short, repetitive sequences of DNA that are highly variable among individuals within a species and between species. These variations are useful for studying genetic diversity, population structure, and evolutionary relationships among species. Microsatellites are often used in genetic mapping, population genetics, and phylogenetic studies due to their high level of polymorphism and ease of analysis.

The other options do not directly involve the use of microsatellite DNA:

• Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues involves stem cell biology and tissue engineering, not microsatellite DNA.
• Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants pertains to plant reproduction and propagation techniques, which do not typically involve microsatellite DNA.
• Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population involves clinical trials and pharmacology, not genetic studies using microsatellites.

Answer: Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector in India:

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 15 crore and ₹ 25 crore.
   • Incorrect. According to the MSME Development Act, 2006, the definition for medium enterprises was revised in 2020. As per the revised definition, medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 10 crore and ₹ 50 crore. The statement does not match the revised limits.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
   • Correct. In India, loans to micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) are categorized under the priority sector lending by banks. This means that banks are required to allocate a certain percentage of their lending to this sector.

Answer: Only statement 2 is correct.

In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to:

A numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Here's a brief explanation:

• Beta is a measure of a stock's volatility relative to the overall market. It indicates how much the stock's price is expected to move in relation to changes in the market index (such as the S&P 500). A beta of 1 means the stock is expected to move in line with the market, a beta greater than 1 indicates greater volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates lower volatility.

The other options refer to different financial concepts:

• The process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms is related to arbitrage.
• An investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward could refer to portfolio optimization or asset allocation.
• A type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible refers to hedging risk or unhedgeable risk, not specifically to beta.

Answer: A numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding the Self-Help Group (SHG) programme:

1. "The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived."
   • Incorrect. The SHG programme was not originally initiated by the State Bank of India (SBI). It was pioneered by NGOs and then supported and scaled up by various institutions including the government. The SHG movement gained significant momentum through the efforts of institutions like NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) and not specifically by SBI.
2. "In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes."
   • Correct. In the SHG model, members collectively guarantee loans taken by individual members. This means that the group as a whole is responsible for ensuring the repayment of loans, which encourages collective responsibility and peer pressure to ensure that repayments are made.
3. "The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs."
   • Correct. Both Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs by providing microcredit and financial services. They often work with SHGs to facilitate access to credit and other banking services for rural and underserved populations.

Answer: Only two of the statements (2 and 3) are correct.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding India's public sector health care system:

1. Statement-I: "India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care."
   • Correct. Historically, India's public sector health care system has been criticized for focusing more on curative care (treating diseases and conditions) rather than on preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care. There has been an ongoing need to strengthen preventive and primary health care services to improve overall health outcomes.
2. Statement-II: "Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services."
   • Correct. India has a decentralized approach to health care delivery, where the responsibility for organizing and managing health services largely falls on the state governments. The states are responsible for implementing health policies, managing public health infrastructure, and providing health services at the regional and local levels.

Analysis:

• Statement-I is correct because India's public health system has historically had a stronger focus on curative rather than preventive care.
• Statement-II is correct because the decentralized approach in India places significant responsibility on state governments for health care delivery.

Answer: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-II explains the decentralization of health services but does not specifically address the focus of the health care system on curative care.

Let's evaluate each statement based on the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’:

1. Statement-I: "According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year."
   • Correct. According to the 2022 report, India is indeed one of the largest users of groundwater globally, extracting a significant proportion of the world's total groundwater. The figure cited is generally around 25% or more of global groundwater withdrawals.
2. Statement-II: "India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world's population living in its territory."
   • Incorrect. While India does have a large share of the world’s groundwater withdrawals, the need to extract such a large proportion of global groundwater is not solely driven by the need to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of its population. Factors such as agricultural demand, inefficiencies in water use, and groundwater depletion contribute to high extraction levels. The percentage of groundwater extraction is not directly proportional to the percentage of the world’s population India represents.

Answer: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

The country that has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was recently in the news for a very severe famine is Somalia.

Here's a brief overview:

• Somalia has experienced long-term civil conflict, instability, and chronic food shortages. The country has faced recurrent famines, exacerbated by ongoing violence and displacement. Recent news often highlights severe humanitarian crises related to famine and food insecurity in Somalia.

The other countries listed have faced various issues but are not currently noted for the same level of severe and prolonged famine as Somalia.

Answer: Somalia

Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were all associated with archaeological excavations.

Here's a brief overview of their contributions:

• Alexander Rea: Known for his work in South Indian archaeology, particularly with the exploration of ancient sites in Tamil Nadu.
• A. H. Longhurst: An important figure in Indian archaeology, particularly known for his work on the ancient sites of Gujarat and the identification of various ancient inscriptions.
• Robert Sewell: Made significant contributions to the study of ancient temples and inscriptions in South India.
• James Burgess: Was instrumental in the study and documentation of ancient Indian temples and architecture.
• Walter Elliot: An archaeologist and historian who made notable contributions to the study of South Indian inscriptions and monuments.

All these individuals were involved in the study and documentation of Indian antiquities and archaeological sites, helping to uncover and preserve India's historical heritage.

Let's evaluate each pair to determine if they are correctly matched with their respective well-known features:

1. Besnagar: Known for its Shaivite cave shrine.
   • Incorrect. Besnagar is actually known for the Besnagar Pillar (also known as the Heliodorus Pillar), which is an ancient Greek inscription commemorating the dedication of a pillar by Heliodorus. It is not particularly associated with Shaivite cave shrines.
2. Bhaja: Known for its Buddhist cave shrine.
   • Correct. Bhaja is well-known for its Buddhist rock-cut caves, which are among the earliest examples of Buddhist cave architecture in India.
3. Sittanawasal: Known for its Jain cave shrine.
   • Correct. Sittanavasal (or Sittanavasal) is famous for its Jain rock-cut caves, which are known for their exquisite frescoes and are a significant site in Jain religious history.

Answer: Only two of the pairs (Bhaja and Sittanavasal) are correctly matched.

Let's evaluate each statement regarding Constitution Day:

1. Statement-I: "The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens."
   • Correct. Constitution Day, also known as National Law Day, is observed on November 26th each year in India to commemorate the adoption of the Indian Constitution and to promote the values enshrined in it.
2. Statement-II: "On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India."
   • Incorrect. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, was established on August 29, 1947, not on November 26, 1949. November 26, 1949, is the date when the Constituent Assembly adopted the Draft Constitution, which was later enacted on January 26, 1950.

Analysis:

• Statement-I is correct about the observance of Constitution Day.
• Statement-II is incorrect regarding the date the Drafting Committee was set up.

Answer: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.