Let's evaluate each statement:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
   • This statement is correct. The Governor is indeed appointed by the Central Government of India.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
   • This statement is incorrect. The RBI is governed by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and not by the Constitution of India. While the central government does have certain powers to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest, these powers are not derived from the Constitution but from the RBI Act itself.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
   • This statement is correct. The powers and functions of the Governor are defined under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

(b) Increase in expenditure on public projects

Explanation:

During an economic recession, the government typically aims to stimulate economic activity and boost demand. To achieve this, the most likely step is to:

• Increase expenditure on public projects: This helps to create jobs, increase income, and stimulate demand in the economy. By investing in infrastructure and other public projects, the government can help counteract the slowdown in economic activity.

The other options are less likely to be effective or counterproductive during a recession:

• (a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate: Cutting tax rates can stimulate demand, but increasing interest rates would likely counteract this by making borrowing more expensive, which could further dampen economic activity.
• (c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate: Increasing tax rates during a recession would reduce consumer spending and business investment, which is counterproductive. While reducing interest rates might help, it would not be enough to offset the negative effects of higher taxes.
• (d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects: Reducing expenditure would likely decrease economic activity further, worsening the recession.

Thus, (b) Increase in expenditure on public projects is the most appropriate step to take during an economic recession.

Let's analyze each statement regarding market demand for a good:

1. Price of its substitute increases:
   • This statement is correct. If the price of a substitute good increases, consumers may switch to the good in question, increasing its demand.
2. Price of its complement increases:
   • This statement is incorrect. If the price of a complement increases, the demand for the good in question typically decreases because the two goods are often used together.
3. The good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases:
   • This statement is incorrect. For an inferior good, demand decreases when consumers' income increases because they switch to higher-quality alternatives.
4. Its price falls:
   • This statement is correct. If the price of the good falls, the demand for the good typically increases due to the law of demand.

Therefore, the correct statements are:

• Price of its substitute increases
• Its price falls

Correct Answer:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. Supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments:
   • This statement is incorrect. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are not regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. Instead, they are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and also come under the purview of the State Governments, particularly in aspects related to registration and compliance with state-level cooperative laws.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares:
   • This statement is correct. Urban Cooperative Banks can issue both equity shares and preference shares to raise capital.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966:
   • This statement is correct. Urban Cooperative Banks were brought under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, by an amendment in 1966, which provided a framework for their regulation and supervision.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve:
   • Global financial markets are interconnected. Actions taken by major central banks like the U.S. Federal Reserve can influence global bond yields, including those of Indian government bonds, due to the impact on capital flows, investor sentiment, and currency exchange rates.
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India:
   • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) directly influences Indian government bond yields through its monetary policy actions, including changes in interest rates, open market operations, and liquidity management.
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates:
   • Inflation expectations and short-term interest rates impact bond yields. Higher inflation typically leads to higher bond yields as investors demand greater returns to compensate for the decreased purchasing power. Short-term interest rates, set by the RBI, also influence bond yields as they affect the overall cost of borrowing and investment returns.

Therefore, Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by all the factors mentioned. Hence, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Option (a) 1, 2 and 3 only can be included in Foreign Direct Investments.

Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs)

Definition:
Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds are a type of debt instrument issued by a company that can be converted into equity shares of the issuing company at a later date. They are typically issued in a currency other than the local currency of the issuer.

Key Features:

1. Conversion Option: Investors have the option to convert the bonds into a specified number of equity shares, usually at a predetermined price.
2. Interest Payments: FCCBs pay interest to bondholders, which is usually lower than that on non-convertible bonds due to the added value of conversion.
3. Currency: Issued in foreign currencies, which can provide an attractive option for international investors.
4. Purpose: Companies use FCCBs to raise capital while potentially benefiting from the currency diversification.

Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) with Certain Conditions

Definition:
Foreign Institutional Investment (now commonly referred to as Foreign Portfolio Investment or FPI) involves investment by foreign institutions, such as mutual funds, pension funds, and hedge funds, in financial markets of a country, typically in stocks, bonds, and other securities.

Key Features:

1. Investment Types: Includes equities, debt instruments, and derivatives.
2. Regulation: Subject to specific regulatory requirements and conditions imposed by the host country’s financial authorities.
3. Control: Does not provide control or significant influence over the companies in which investments are made.
4. Liquidity: Generally high liquidity, allowing for easy buying and selling of securities.

Global Depository Receipts (GDRs)

Definition:
Global Depository Receipts are financial instruments that represent shares in a foreign company. They are issued by a depository bank and traded on international stock exchanges.

Key Features:

1. Representation: GDRs represent a specific number of shares in a company, and each GDR corresponds to a certain number of underlying shares.
2. Trading: Traded on international exchanges, making it easier for investors to buy shares of foreign companies.
3. Currency: Issued in a currency different from the home currency of the issuing company, facilitating international investment.
4. Purpose: Used by companies to raise capital from global investors and increase their international presence.

Non-Resident External Deposits (NRE Deposits)

Definition:
Non-Resident External Deposits are bank accounts held by non-resident Indians (NRIs) in India. These accounts are primarily used to manage income earned outside India and repatriate funds back to the country of residence.

Key Features:

1. Currency: Held in Indian Rupees (INR) and repatriable, meaning funds can be transferred back to the country of residence.
2. Interest Rates: Generally offer competitive interest rates, often tax-free in India.
3. Taxation: Interest earned is exempt from Indian income tax.
4. Usage: Used for depositing income earned outside India, managing savings, and repatriating funds.

Summary

• Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs): Debt instruments that can be converted into equity shares, issued in foreign currencies.
• Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)/Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI): Investments by foreign institutions in financial markets, typically with no control over the companies and high liquidity.
• Global Depository Receipts (GDRs): Financial instruments representing shares of foreign companies, traded internationally.
• Non-Resident External Deposits (NRE Deposits): Bank accounts for NRIs in India, held in INR, repatriable, and tax-exempt.

Each of these financial instruments serves different purposes and caters to various investor needs, ranging from capital raising and investment diversification to facilitating international trade and investment.

(a) 1 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets:
  • True. Devaluation of a currency makes domestic goods cheaper for foreign buyers, thus potentially increasing demand for exports.
• Statement 2: Increases the foreign value of domestic currency:
  • False. Devaluation reduces the value of the domestic currency relative to foreign currencies, meaning that the foreign value of the domestic currency decreases, not increases.
• Statement 3: Improves the trade balance:
  • False. While devaluation can improve the trade balance by making exports cheaper and imports more expensive, it does not necessarily guarantee an improvement. The actual effect on the trade balance depends on various factors, including the price elasticity of demand for exports and imports.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

(d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Explanation:

The creation of black money in India leads to several adverse effects, but the primary concern for the Government of India is the loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion.

• Black money refers to income that is not declared to the tax authorities, leading to tax evasion. This results in a significant loss of revenue for the government, which could have been used for public services, infrastructure development, and other welfare programs.
• While other options such as diversion of resources, investment in unproductive activities, and political donations are also serious concerns, they are largely secondary effects. The core issue is that black money undermines the tax base, leading to a direct loss of government revenue.

Therefore, (d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion is the main cause of worry to the Government of India regarding the creation of black money.

(d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Explanation:

Creating new money to finance a budget deficit is the most inflationary among the given options. Here's why:

• Creation of new money: When a government prints new money to finance its budget deficit, it increases the money supply in the economy. If the amount of goods and services does not increase proportionately, it leads to higher prices, which is inflation.
• Borrowing from the banks: This is also inflationary, but to a lesser extent. Borrowing from banks may lead to an increase in money supply if the banks lend more. However, it doesn't immediately increase the money supply as directly as printing new money.
• Borrowing from the public: When the government borrows from the public, it does not directly increase the money supply, as it is taking money already in circulation. This is generally less inflationary compared to the creation of new money.
• Repayment of public debt: This typically reduces the money supply, as the government takes money from circulation to pay off its debts, which could even have a deflationary effect, depending on how it's managed.

Therefore, (d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects.

(c) Increase in the banking habit of the people

Explanation:

The money multiplier refers to the amount of money that banks generate with each unit of reserves. It increases when:

• Banking habit of the people increases: When more people deposit money into banks, the banks have more reserves to lend out, which increases the money supply through the process of multiple deposits and lending cycles.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) are reserve requirements set by the central bank. An increase in these ratios would require banks to hold more money in reserve, reducing the money available for lending, and thus would decrease the money multiplier.
• Population increase alone does not necessarily affect the money multiplier unless it is associated with an increased banking habit.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Increase in the banking habit of the people.

(b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

1. Retail Investors and Government Securities: Retail investors can indeed invest in Treasury Bills (T-Bills) and Government of India Debt Bonds through their demat accounts in the primary market. This access has been facilitated to widen the investor base and encourage participation from individual investors.
2. Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM): The NDS-OM is an electronic trading platform for government securities that is operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It allows for the trading of government securities in a more transparent and efficient manner.
3. Central Depository Services Ltd. (CDSL): CDSL is not promoted by the Reserve Bank of India. It was promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) along with other financial institutions. The RBI does not have a direct role in promoting CDSL.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 2 only.

(c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. Microfinance in Water Credit: The "Water Credit" initiative utilizes microfinance tools to address issues in the water and sanitation sector. By providing small loans, it helps low-income communities gain access to clean water and sanitation facilities, making the first statement correct.
2. Global Initiative under WHO and World Bank: While Water Credit is a global initiative, it is not launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization (WHO) and the World Bank. This makes the second statement incorrect.
3. Meeting Water Needs Without Subsidies: Water Credit aims to enable poor people to meet their water needs without relying on subsidies, empowering them to invest in their water and sanitation infrastructure, making the third statement correct.

Hence, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

(b) 2 only

Explanation:

The central bank's function as the "lender of last resort" primarily refers to providing liquidity to banks that are experiencing a temporary crisis, ensuring that they do not collapse due to short-term liquidity issues. This role is crucial in maintaining stability in the financial system. The central bank does not usually act as a lender of last resort to trade and industry bodies or to governments to finance budgetary deficits.

Hence, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

(a) Environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry.

Explanation:

The R2 Code of Practices is a set of guidelines and standards specifically designed to promote environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry. It provides best practices for electronics recyclers to ensure safe, responsible recycling and disposal of electronic waste, with a focus on protecting the environment and human health.

Hence, the correct answer is (a) Environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry.

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment: While carbon monoxide is a concern in various industrial processes, it is not a primary pollutant associated with copper smelting plants. Thus, this statement is not correct.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment: This is correct. Copper slag, a byproduct of smelting, can contain heavy metals like lead, arsenic, and cadmium, which may leach into the environment and contaminate soil and water sources.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant: This is also correct. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is a significant pollutant released during the smelting of copper ores, which contain sulphur compounds. The emission of SO₂ can lead to acid rain and other environmental problems.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

In News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/sterlite-copper-smelting-plant-tuticorn-protests-5193832/

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. Furnace oil is a product of oil refineries: This is correct. Furnace oil, also known as heavy oil, is derived from the refining of crude oil.
2. Some industries use it to generate power: This is also correct. Furnace oil is commonly used as a fuel in industrial processes, including power generation.
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment: This is correct as well. Furnace oil contains sulphur, and its combustion can lead to the release of sulphur dioxide (SO₂), which contributes to air pollution and acid rain.

(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems.

Explanation:

• Blue carbon refers to the carbon captured and stored by marine and coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, salt marshes, and seagrasses. These ecosystems play a crucial role in mitigating climate change by sequestering carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

(c) Lemongrass

Explanation:

• Lemongrass is used in preparing natural mosquito repellents. It contains citronella, which is a well-known natural mosquito repellent.
• Congress grass (Parthenium hysterophorus) is actually considered an invasive weed and does not have repellent properties.
• Elephant Grass and Nut Grass do not have known properties for mosquito repellent preparation.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Lemongrass.

(b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Cyanobacteria: These are primary producers in ocean ecosystems. They are photosynthetic organisms that contribute to primary production in marine environments.
• Diatoms: Diatoms are also primary producers. They are a type of phytoplankton that perform photosynthesis and form a fundamental part of the ocean's food web.
• Copepods: Copepods are primary consumers, not producers. They feed on phytoplankton.
• Foraminifera: Foraminifera are mainly consumers and are not considered primary producers. They feed on smaller microorganisms, including phytoplankton.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Hedgehog: When threatened, a hedgehog rolls into a tight ball to protect its vulnerable underbelly and face with its spines.
• Marmot: Marmots do not roll up into a ball. Instead, they rely on burrows for protection from predators.
• Pangolin: Pangolins roll into a ball to protect their vulnerable underbelly and soft parts from predators.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) 1 and 3 only.

(a) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The New York Declaration on Forests was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014, making this statement correct.
• Statement 2: The declaration does endorse a global timeline to end deforestation by 2030, with an interim goal of reducing deforestation by 50% by 2020.
• Statement 3: The declaration is not legally binding; it is voluntary and non-binding, so this statement is incorrect.
• Statement 4: The declaration is endorsed by a wide range of stakeholders, including governments, big companies, and indigenous communities.
• Statement 5: India was not one of the original signatories of the New York Declaration on Forests.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2 and 4.

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Magnetite particles, which are a form of iron oxide, can be produced as a result of high-temperature processes, friction, and combustion. They are suspected to be a cause of neurodegenerative problems due to their ability to enter the human brain through the olfactory nerve.

• Brakes of motor vehicles: The friction between the brake pads and discs generates fine particles, including magnetite.
• Engines of motor vehicles: Combustion and wear in engines can produce magnetite particles.
• Power plants: Combustion of fossil fuels, especially coal, can release magnetite particles into the environment.
• Microwave stoves within homes: These do not typically produce magnetite particles.
• Telephone lines: These are not associated with the generation of magnetite particles.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 4 only.

(c) Oyster

Explanation:

Oysters are filter feeders, meaning they feed by filtering small particles, such as plankton and organic matter, from the water. They draw water in, filter out the food particles, and expel the cleaned water. This process not only helps them obtain nutrients but also plays a role in cleaning the water in their environment.

• Catfish generally feed on a variety of prey, including small fish, insects, and plant material, rather than filtering water.
• Octopus are predators, feeding on crabs, fish, and other small marine animals.
• Pelicans are birds that catch fish with their large beaks and are not filter feeders.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Oyster.

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only

Explanation:

Detritivores are organisms that feed on dead organic matter, breaking it down into smaller particles, which contributes to decomposition.

• Earthworms (1) are classic detritivores as they consume decaying plant material.
• Millipedes (3) feed on decaying plant matter, making them detritivores.
• Woodlice (5) also consume decaying organic matter, particularly leaf litter.
• Jellyfish (2) are carnivorous and feed on small fish and plankton, not detritus.
• Seahorses (4) are also carnivorous and feed on small crustaceans, not detritus.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1, 3 and 5 only.

(a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world

Explanation:

The ‘Common Carbon Metric’ is a tool developed to measure and report the energy use and greenhouse gas emissions from buildings. Supported by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), it is designed to provide a consistent and standardized approach for assessing the carbon footprint associated with building operations globally. This tool is particularly important for understanding and reducing the environmental impact of the building sector, which is a significant contributor to global carbon emissions.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world.

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Cnidarians: Many species of cnidarians, such as corals, form symbiotic relationships with algae (zooxanthellae). The algae live within the coral tissues, providing nutrients through photosynthesis, while the corals provide a protected environment and access to sunlight.
• Fungi: Fungi are well-known for forming symbiotic relationships. For instance, in mycorrhizal associations, fungi form a mutualistic relationship with plant roots, where the fungus helps the plant absorb nutrients from the soil, and in return, the plant supplies the fungus with carbohydrates.
• Protozoa: Some protozoa engage in symbiotic relationships. For example, certain protozoa live within the guts of termites, helping them digest cellulose. Both organisms benefit from this relationship.

Thus, all three groups—cnidarians, fungi, and protozoa—include species that can establish symbiotic relationships with other organisms, making option (d) 1, 2 and 3 the correct answer.

The correct statements regarding the Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena are:

• It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
• Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

So, the correct answer is:

(c) 1 and 4 only

The ancient town well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs is:

(a) Dholavira

From the decline of the Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India:

• The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar (Harshavardhana’s dynasty)
• The Maukharis of Kanauj
• The Maitrakas of Valabhi

The correct answer is:

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

This option correctly includes the Guptas of Magadha (before their decline), the Pushyabhutis, the Maukharis, and the Maitrakas. The Paramaras of Malwa and the Yadavas of Devagiri were significant in later periods and regions outside Northern India during this time.

The correct answer is:

(d) 2 and 3 only

Here’s the explanation for each pair:

1. Burzahom is not well-known for rock-cut shrines; it is known for its prehistoric habitation site and the evidence of early agricultural practices and domesticated animals.
2. Chandraketugarh is well-known for its terracotta art, particularly sculptures and pottery.
3. Ganeshwar is known for its copper artifacts, which are important in understanding the metalworking skills of ancient India.

So, the correctly matched pairs are 2 and 3.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Here's a breakdown:

1. Mitakshara and Dayabhaga were not differentiated by caste but rather by different principles of inheritance. Mitakshara and Dayabhaga are systems of Hindu law, but they are not related to caste. They deal with different approaches to inheritance and property rights.
2. In the Mitakshara system, sons have the right to claim their share of property during the lifetime of the father, while in the Dayabhaga system, the right to property is acquired only after the father's death.
3. Both systems deal with property rights of male members, and Dayabhaga does not specifically deal with both male and female members in the same way as suggested.

The correct answer is:

(b) Playwrights

Bhavabhuti is known for his classical Sanskrit plays, including "Malatimadhava" and "Uttararamacharita." Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were also prominent playwrights of ancient India.

The correct answer is:

(b) 2 only

Here's the explanation:

1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 did not grant voting rights to all women above the age of 21. These reforms introduced a limited form of self-government in India and expanded the electorate, but the voting rights were still restricted, and women did not receive universal suffrage.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 did provide reserved seats for women in the legislature. The Act expanded the legislative framework and included provisions for reserved seats for women to encourage their participation in the political process.

The correct statement is:

(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.

On August 8, 1942, the All India Congress Committee (AICC) passed the Quit India Resolution, demanding an end to British rule in India. This marked the launch of the Quit India Movement.

The correct answer is:

(c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

"Songs from Prison" is a collection of translations and reflections on religious and spiritual songs that Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi made while he was imprisoned.

The person associated as Secretary with the Hindu Female School, which later came to be known as Bethune Female School, was:

(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar played a key role in the development of women's education in India and was instrumental in the establishment of the Bethune Female School.

In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as:

(d) Officers of the Indian National Army

These individuals were prominent officers in the Indian National Army (INA) led by Subhas Chandra Bose.

The correct statement is (a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora River.

Explanation:

1. Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora River.
   • This statement is correct. The Ajanta Caves are located in a gorge along the Waghora River in Maharashtra, India.
2. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal River.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Sanchi Stupa is located in Madhya Pradesh, but it is not in the gorge of the Chambal River. It is situated on a hilltop.
3. Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada River.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Pandu-lena Caves are located near Nashik, Maharashtra, and are not situated in the gorge of the Narmada River.
4. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari River.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Amaravati Stupa is located in Andhra Pradesh, but it is not in the gorge of the Godavari River. It is situated on the banks of the Krishna River.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation:

1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
   • This statement is incorrect. The International Mother Language Day was declared by UNESCO, not UNICEF. It is celebrated annually on February 21 to promote linguistic and cultural diversity.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
   • This statement is correct. The demand for making Bangla (Bengali) one of the national languages of Pakistan was indeed raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. This demand was part of the broader linguistic and political struggle which eventually led to the Bangladesh Liberation War and the independence of Bangladesh.

The correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 4.

Explanation:

1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
   • This statement is correct. Permaculture promotes biodiversity and polycultures (growing multiple types of plants together), whereas conventional chemical farming often relies on monocultures (growing a single crop over a large area).
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause an increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
   • This statement is correct. Conventional chemical farming, particularly through overuse of certain fertilizers and irrigation practices, can lead to soil salinity issues. Permaculture aims to minimize such problems through sustainable practices and integrated approaches.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
   • This statement is not entirely accurate. Permaculture can be adapted to semi-arid regions through specific techniques designed to conserve water and improve soil health. Conventional chemical farming often relies on more intensive water and soil management practices that may not be sustainable in such regions.
4. The practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
   • This statement is correct. Mulching is a key practice in permaculture for soil conservation, moisture retention, and weed control. While mulching can be used in conventional chemical farming, it is not as central to the practice as it is in permaculture.

Thus, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 4.

The correct answer is (d) saline lakes.

Explanation:

Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are all names of saline lakes located in the Thar Desert region of Rajasthan, India. These lakes are characterized by their high salinity and are significant features of the desert's landscape.

The correct answer is (b) 2 and 4.

Explanation:

• Nagavali: Rises in the Eastern Ghats and flows eastward into the Bay of Bengal.
• Vamsadhara: Also originates in the Eastern Ghats and flows towards the Bay of Bengal.
• Brahmani: Originates in the Chotanagpur Plateau and does not rise from the Eastern Ghats.
• Subarnarekha: Originates in the Chotanagpur Plateau, similar to the Brahmani, and does not rise from the Eastern Ghats.

Therefore, the rivers that rise from the Eastern Ghats are Nagavali and Vamsadhara.

The correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

Explanation:

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
   • This statement is incorrect. The Global Ocean Commission is not responsible for granting licenses for seabed exploration or mining. Instead, the International Seabed Authority (ISA) is the organization responsible for this.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
   • This statement is correct. India has indeed received licenses from the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.
   • This statement is correct. Rare earth minerals, including various valuable elements, have been found on the seafloor in international waters, particularly in areas like polymetallic nodules and crusts.

Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only.

The correct answer is (a) Sugarcane.

Explanation:

• Sugarcane is known for being the least water-efficient among the crops listed. It requires a substantial amount of water for its growth, often leading to significant water usage and depletion in regions where it is cultivated.
• Sunflower, Pearl millet, and Red gram are generally more water-efficient compared to sugarcane. They are better suited for regions with lower water availability and require less water to grow.

Therefore, sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop among the options provided.

The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
   • This statement is correct. In the tropical zone, the trade winds blow from east to west, pushing warm surface waters towards the western sides of the oceans. This results in warmer water temperatures in the western sections compared to the eastern sections.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.
   • This statement is also correct. In the temperate zones, the westerlies blow from west to east, which leads to the movement of warmer waters towards the eastern sides of the oceans. The western sections of the oceans in temperate regions typically experience cooler water due to the influence of cold ocean currents.

Therefore, both statements accurately describe the effects of wind patterns on ocean temperatures in different zones.

The correct answer is (d) tropical rain forest.

Explanation:

The description provided is characteristic of a tropical rain forest:

• Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome: Tropical rain forests have a warm, moist environment that accelerates the decomposition of leaf litter, resulting in a nutrient-rich but often bare soil surface.
• Vegetation largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy: In tropical rain forests, many plants adapt to reach the sunlight by climbing trees (lianas) or growing as epiphytes (plants that live on other plants). This adaptation allows them to thrive in the dense canopy where sunlight is limited.
• Almost bare soil surface: Due to rapid decomposition and nutrient cycling, the forest floor often has minimal leaf litter or soil cover.

In contrast, the other options are less consistent with this description:

• Coniferous forest (a): Characterized by evergreen trees with needle-like leaves and typically has slower decomposition rates due to cooler temperatures.
• Dry deciduous forest (b): Experiences a pronounced dry season with leaf shedding, and decomposition rates are slower compared to tropical rain forests.
• Mangrove forest (c): Located in coastal regions with saline conditions, it supports unique vegetation adapted to tidal and saline environments, not characterized by rapid decomposition of leaf litter.

Thus, the description best fits a tropical rain forest.

The correct answer is (c) 2, 3 and 4.

Explanation:

1. Burrowing animals and termites (1): While these can impact vegetation, they are not the primary factors that keep forest development in check in savannah regions.
2. Fire (2): Fire is a significant factor in maintaining the savannah ecosystem. It prevents the encroachment of trees by periodically burning the grasslands.
3. Grazing herbivores (3): Grazing by herbivores, such as elephants and antelopes, can prevent tree growth by consuming young trees and shrubs.
4. Seasonal rainfall (4): The amount and distribution of rainfall influence the vegetation. Savannahs typically experience seasonal rainfall, which supports grasslands but may not be sufficient for extensive tree growth.
5. Soil properties (5): While soil properties can affect vegetation, they are not as directly influential in maintaining the savannah compared to fire, grazing, and seasonal rainfall.

Thus, the conditions that generally keep forest development in check in savannah areas include fire, grazing herbivores, and seasonal rainfall.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation:

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
   • This statement is incorrect. Groundwater constitutes a much larger portion of Earth's fresh water compared to rivers and lakes. Groundwater accounts for about 30.1% of the world's fresh water, while the combined volume of water in rivers and lakes is significantly less.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
   • This statement is correct. Polar ice caps and glaciers hold about 68.7% of the Earth's fresh water, which is indeed more than the amount of groundwater.

Thus, the correct statement is 2 only.

The correct answer is (b) 3, 4 and 5.

Explanation:

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
   • This statement is incorrect. Moringa is not a leguminous tree; it is a member of the Moringaceae family. It is often classified as an evergreen but does not belong to the legume family.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
   • This statement is incorrect. Tamarind (Tamarindus indica) is native to tropical Africa, not just South Asia. It has been widely cultivated in South Asia and other tropical regions.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
   • This statement is correct. Tamarind is indeed collected as a minor forest produce in many parts of India, where it is used in various culinary and traditional applications.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
   • This statement is correct. India is a major exporter of tamarind and also exports moringa seeds, which are valued for their nutritional and medicinal properties.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.
   • This statement is correct. Both moringa seeds and tamarind seeds have potential uses in the production of biofuels due to their oil content.

Therefore, the correct combination of statements is 3, 4, and 5.

The correct answer is (b) fissure volcanic rock.

Explanation:

• Black cotton soil, also known as Regur soil, is primarily formed from the weathering of fissure volcanic rocks. This type of soil is rich in minerals and is very fertile, making it ideal for cotton cultivation. The soil's formation is associated with the Deccan Plateau, which has extensive basaltic lava flows.
• Brown forest soil (a), granite and schist (c), and shale and limestone (d) are not the primary sources for the formation of black cotton soil. Brown forest soil typically forms under forested areas and is not associated with volcanic activity. Granite and schist are metamorphic rocks that do not contribute to black cotton soil formation, while shale and limestone are sedimentary rocks that also do not form black cotton soil.

The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
   • This statement is correct. Recombinant vector vaccines are developed using genetic engineering techniques. They involve inserting genes encoding antigens (the parts of pathogens that trigger an immune response) into a vector organism, which then produces the antigen to elicit an immune response.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
   • This statement is also correct. In recombinant vector vaccines, bacteria and viruses can be used as vectors. These vectors are engineered to carry and express the antigenic genes. For example, some vaccines use weakened or harmless viruses as vectors to deliver the antigen to the host's immune system.

Thus, both statements about recombinant vector vaccines and their development are correct.

The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
   • This statement is correct. Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) is a technique used to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. It involves replacing defective mitochondria in the egg with healthy mitochondria from a donor egg, either before or after in vitro fertilization.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.
   • This statement is also correct. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited exclusively from the mother because mitochondria in the sperm are typically discarded during fertilization. Therefore, mitochondrial diseases are passed down from the mother to the child.

Hence, both statements about mitochondrial diseases and the methods to prevent their transmission are correct.

The correct answer is (b) developing genetically modified crop plants.

Explanation:

• Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies refer to genetically modified (GM) cotton plants. These technologies involve the insertion of genes from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) into cotton plants to confer resistance to certain pests, specifically the cotton bollworm.
• Clonal propagation of crop plants (a): This refers to methods of reproducing plants asexually, not genetically modification technologies.
• Production of plant growth substances (c): This involves chemicals or hormones that influence plant growth, not GM technologies.
• Production of biofertilizers (d): Biofertilizers are substances that contain living microorganisms which promote plant growth, not related to GM technologies like Bollgard.

Thus, Bollgard I and Bollgard II are technologies used in developing genetically modified crop plants.

The correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only.

Explanation:

• Bacteria (1): Bacteria can be cultured in artificial or synthetic media. These media provide the necessary nutrients and conditions for bacterial growth in laboratory settings.
• Fungi (2): Fungi can also be cultured in artificial or synthetic media. Like bacteria, fungi can grow and thrive on specially prepared media that supply the nutrients they need.
• Virus (3): Viruses cannot be cultured in artificial or synthetic media alone because they require living host cells to replicate. They are typically cultured in living cells or organisms that support their growth and replication.

Therefore, Bacteria and Fungi can be cultured in artificial or synthetic media, while Viruses cannot.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
   • This statement is incorrect. Adenoviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes, not single-stranded DNA. Retroviruses, on the other hand, have single-stranded RNA genomes and use reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA into double-stranded DNA once inside a host cell.
2. Statement 2: Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
   • This statement is correct. Adenoviruses can cause respiratory infections, including the common cold. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which is a retrovirus.

Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is (a) it is dipolar in nature.

Explanation:

• Dipolar nature (a): Water is a polar molecule, meaning it has a partial positive charge on one end (due to the hydrogen atoms) and a partial negative charge on the other end (due to the oxygen atom). This dipolar nature allows water molecules to interact with and dissolve a wide range of substances, including many ionic and polar compounds. This property makes water a versatile solvent and is often referred to as the "universal solvent."
• Good conductor of heat (b): While water has a high specific heat capacity (which means it can absorb and retain heat), its ability to dissolve substances is not directly related to its thermal conductivity.
• High value of specific heat (c): The high specific heat of water means it can absorb a lot of heat before its temperature changes significantly. This property is important for regulating temperature but does not explain why water is a good solvent.
• Oxide of hydrogen (d): The fact that water is an oxide of hydrogen does not directly explain its solvent properties. The key factor for dissolving substances is its dipolar nature.

Thus, water's ability to dissolve a wide variety of substances is primarily due to its dipolar nature.

The correct answer is (d) spread of viral diseases.

Explanation:

• ACE2 (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2) is a protein found on the surface of many cells and plays a crucial role in the context of viral diseases, particularly in relation to the spread of the SARS-CoV-2 virus, which causes COVID-19. The virus binds to ACE2 receptors to enter and infect human cells.
• Genes introduced in genetically modified plants (a), development of India’s own satellite navigation system (b), and radio collars for wildlife tracking (c) are unrelated to ACE2.

Therefore, ACE2 is most relevant in discussions about the spread of viral diseases.

The correct answer is (b) Polycarbonate.

Explanation:

• Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical used as a key component in the production of polycarbonate plastics. Polycarbonate plastics are known for their strength, durability, and clarity and are used in a variety of products, including water bottles, eyeglass lenses, and other consumer goods.
• Low-density polyethylene (a), Polyethylene terephthalate (c), and Polyvinyl chloride (d) do not use BPA in their manufacturing processes.
  • Low-density polyethylene (LDPE) is made from ethylene monomers.
  • Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is made from terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
  • Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is made from vinyl chloride monomers.

Thus, polycarbonate is the type of plastic where Bisphenol A (BPA) is a key component.

The correct answer is (d) Toiletries.

Explanation:

• Triclosan is an antibacterial and antifungal agent commonly used in various personal care products and toiletries, such as soaps, toothpaste, and hand sanitizers. When exposed to high levels over extended periods, triclosan can be harmful and may contribute to antibiotic resistance and other health issues.
• Food preservatives (a): Triclosan is not typically used as a food preservative. Food preservatives have different chemicals and are regulated separately.
• Fruit-ripening substances (b): Triclosan is not used in fruit-ripening substances. Ripening agents used in fruits are different chemicals, such as ethylene.
• Reused plastic containers (c): While some plastic containers may have residues of various chemicals, triclosan is not specifically associated with reused plastic containers.

Therefore, triclosan is most likely to be found in toiletries, where it is used for its antibacterial properties.

The correct answer is (d) Speed of light is always same.

Explanation:

• Speed of light is always same (d): Astronomical distances are measured in light-years because the speed of light in a vacuum is constant and well-known. A light-year is the distance that light travels in one year, which provides a convenient way to express and understand the vast distances between celestial objects. The constancy of the speed of light allows astronomers to use this unit to describe these distances with precision.
• Distances among stellar bodies do not change (a): This is not a reason for measuring distances in light-years. While the distances between stellar bodies can change over long periods due to their motion, the use of light-years is more about the practical aspect of the measurement rather than the constancy of distances.
• Gravity of stellar bodies does not change (b): The gravitational force of stellar bodies can vary depending on their mass and distance, but this is not related to why distances are measured in light-years.
• Light always travels in straight line (c): Light travels in straight lines in a uniform medium, but it can be bent by gravity (gravitational lensing) or other factors. The straight-line travel of light is not the primary reason for using light-years as a unit of measurement.

Therefore, the reason astronomical distances are measured in light-years is primarily due to the fact that the speed of light is always the same, which provides a consistent basis for these measurements.

The correct answer is (c) Article 21.

Explanation:

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law." This has been interpreted by the Supreme Court of India to include the right to privacy as an essential part of the right to personal liberty.
• Article 15 deals with the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 19 guarantees certain freedoms such as freedom of speech and expression, freedom to assemble peacefully, and freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India, among others. While the right to privacy may impact these freedoms, it is not explicitly mentioned in Article 19.
• Article 29 provides for the protection of interests of minorities by allowing them to conserve their language, script, or culture.

Therefore, the right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is (d) 2 and 3.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
   • This statement is incorrect. While the concept of the "Right to the City" is a significant idea advocating for urban rights and inclusivity, it is not formally recognized as a human right under international law. The UN-Habitat supports various urban rights initiatives but does not specifically monitor this concept as a binding human right.
2. Statement 2: ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
   • This statement is correct. The "Right to the City" emphasizes the right of all residents to participate in the development and use of urban spaces. It includes the right to access, reclaim, and actively engage in shaping public spaces and urban environments.
3. Statement 3: ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.
   • This statement is correct. The "Right to the City" advocates for the inclusion of marginalized or unauthorized settlements in the urban framework, including access to public services and facilities. It argues that all residents, regardless of their legal status, should have access to basic urban services and infrastructure.

Therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
   • This statement is incorrect. Judicial custody means that the accused is under the custody of the court or magistrate and is typically housed in a jail, not a police station. In judicial custody, the accused is sent to jail or a similar correctional facility, and not kept in the police station.
2. Statement 2: During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
   • This statement is correct. When a person is in judicial custody, the police generally need to obtain permission from the court to interrogate the accused. This ensures that the rights of the accused are protected and prevents any potential abuse or coercion during the interrogation process.

Thus, Statement 2 is correct, while Statement 1 is not.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
   • This statement is incorrect. In India, parole is not an absolute right. It is a discretionary power granted by the authorities and is subject to the conditions and rules set forth by the state governments. Even if a prisoner makes a sufficient case, parole can be denied based on various factors, including the nature of the crime, the conduct of the prisoner, and other considerations.
2. Statement 2: State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
   • This statement is correct. In India, the release of prisoners on parole is governed by rules established by individual state governments. Each state has its own set of rules and procedures for granting parole, which are formulated in accordance with the provisions of the Prisons Act and relevant state legislation.

Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Explanation:

The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), is designed to recognize and vest the forest rights of Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.

• The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency responsible for overseeing the implementation of the FRA. It plays a central role in ensuring that the provisions of the Act are effectively carried out, and it works to address issues related to tribal welfare and forest rights.
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is involved in environmental and forest conservation issues but does not serve as the nodal agency for the FRA.
• Ministry of Panchayati Raj focuses on the governance and functioning of Panchayati Raj institutions and does not have a direct role in implementing the FRA.
• Ministry of Rural Development deals with rural development programs and initiatives but does not specifically oversee the implementation of the FRA.

Therefore, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the correct nodal agency for the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

The correct answer is (a) Article 14.

Explanation:

• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. It ensures that no person is denied equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• When legislation confers on the executive or administrative authority unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power, it can lead to arbitrary actions and discrimination, thereby violating the principle of equality before the law. Such discretion undermines the rule of law and can result in unequal treatment or unfair practices.
• Article 28 deals with the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice, and propagate religion, and does not relate to the issue of discretionary power.
• Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies, allowing individuals to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, but it does not specifically address the issue of discretionary power.
• Article 44 pertains to the Uniform Civil Code and does not relate to the issue of discretionary powers or equality before the law.

Therefore, legislation that grants unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power violates Article 14, which is concerned with equality and the rule of law.

The correct answer is (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

Explanation:

In a federal system, certain features indicate the division of powers and responsibilities between different levels of government. Here’s why (a) is the most relevant to the federal character of Indian polity:

• Independence of Judiciary: The safeguarding of the independence of the judiciary is a crucial feature of federalism. It ensures that the judiciary can act as an impartial arbiter of disputes between the central and state governments, thus maintaining the balance of power and protecting the federal structure.
• Option (b): The Union Legislature having elected representatives from constituent units (i.e., states) does not necessarily indicate federalism on its own. While it reflects representation, the true essence of federalism is more about the distribution and balance of power.
• Option (c): The Union Cabinet having elected representatives from regional parties does not inherently indicate federalism. Regional representation in the central government is a political feature rather than a defining characteristic of federalism.
• Option (d): The enforceability of Fundamental Rights by courts of law pertains more to the protection of individual rights and the rule of law rather than the federal structure itself.

Therefore, the independence of the judiciary is an essential feature that supports the federal character of Indian polity by ensuring a neutral authority to resolve conflicts between different levels of government.

The correct answer is (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.

Explanation:

The term ‘State’ in political science is best defined by the following characteristics:

• Community of persons: A state consists of a group of people who live together.
• Permanently occupying a definite territory: The state must have a specific geographic area with recognized borders.
• Independent of external control: The state should have sovereignty, meaning it is not subject to external authority.
• Possessing an organized government: The state has a structured system of governance that manages its affairs.

Option (a) accurately encompasses these fundamental attributes of a state.

Option (b) describes some characteristics of a state but adds elements like the protection of natural rights and safeguarding means of sustenance, which are not universally applicable to the definition of a state.

Option (c) focuses on cultural and historical aspects rather than the essential components of statehood.

Option (d) emphasizes internal structure but is less comprehensive about the concept of sovereignty and territory.

Therefore, (a) is the most accurate and widely accepted definition of a state.

The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
   • This statement is correct. In India, there is only one citizenship, which is Indian citizenship. The concept of domicile, which refers to a person's permanent home, is not a requirement for acquiring citizenship but is relevant in certain contexts, like determining eligibility for reservations and other benefits.
2. Statement 2: A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
   • This statement is incorrect. In India, the President (the Head of State) must be a citizen of India, but not necessarily a citizen by birth. A person who is a citizen of India by descent or naturalization can also become the President, provided they meet the other eligibility criteria.
3. Statement 3: A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
   • This statement is incorrect. Indian citizenship can be revoked under certain circumstances. For example, if an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, they automatically lose Indian citizenship. Similarly, the government can revoke citizenship under specific conditions provided by law.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is (d) Separation of powers.

Explanation:

In a liberal democracy, the separation of powers is considered the best safeguard of liberty. Here’s why:

• Separation of Powers: This principle divides government responsibilities into distinct branches—typically the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. Each branch has its own powers and functions, and this separation helps to prevent any one branch from becoming too powerful. By ensuring that no single entity or group has unchecked power, it protects individual freedoms and liberties from potential abuses of power.
• Committed Judiciary: While a committed and independent judiciary is crucial for upholding the rule of law and protecting individual rights, it is not a substitute for the structural safeguard provided by the separation of powers.
• Centralization of Powers: Centralization often leads to the concentration of power in one entity, which can be a threat to individual liberties and democratic principles, as it reduces checks and balances.
• Elected Government: An elected government represents the democratic will of the people, but without a system of checks and balances like the separation of powers, the risk of abuse of power remains.

Thus, the separation of powers is fundamental to safeguarding liberty in a liberal democracy, as it ensures a system of checks and balances among different branches of government.

The correct answer is (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Explanation:

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are guidelines set out in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. They are intended to guide the State in formulating and implementing policies and laws aimed at promoting social and economic welfare.
• The concentration of wealth in the hands of a few contradicts the principles outlined in the Directive Principles, such as the promotion of equitable distribution of wealth and ensuring that resources are used for the common good. Specifically, Directive Principles like Article 39(b) and 39(c) advocate for the distribution of wealth to ensure that it does not result in economic disparity.
• While the Right to Equality (Article 14) and other Fundamental Rights aim to ensure equal treatment before the law, the issue of wealth concentration is more directly addressed through the principles in the DPSP rather than individual rights.
• The Concept of Welfare refers broadly to the idea of creating a social and economic system that benefits all, and while the concentration of wealth can impact welfare, the specific constitutional reference is to the Directive Principles.

Therefore, the concentration of wealth primarily violates the Directive Principles of State Policy.

The correct answer is (b) Legal right available to any person.

Explanation:

• Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31 of the Indian Constitution. However, it was moved from the category of Fundamental Rights to a legal right through the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
• As a result of this amendment, the Right to Property became a legal right under Article 300A of the Constitution. This means it is available to any person, not just citizens, and it protects against arbitrary deprivation of property by the State.
• The Fundamental Right status was removed to make room for other Fundamental Rights and to better balance individual rights with the needs of the State.

Thus, the Right to Property is now a legal right available to any person.

The correct answer is (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic.

Explanation:

On January 26, 1950, when the Constitution of India came into effect, India was officially declared as a Sovereign Democratic Republic. At that time, the terms "Secular," "Socialist," and other specific descriptors were not part of the constitutional status:

• Sovereign: India was independent and had full control over its own affairs.
• Democratic: The country had a system of government based on the principle of elected representatives.
• Republic: The head of state was elected, not a monarch.

The terms "Secular" and "Socialist" were added later through amendments to the Constitution. "Secular" was introduced by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, and "Socialist" was also included in the same amendment.

The correct answer is (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution.

Explanation:

• Constitutional government refers to a system of government that is defined and limited by a constitution. This constitution outlines the structure of the government, the distribution of powers, and the rights of citizens, ensuring that government actions are constrained by legal norms and principles.
• Option (a) describes a representative federal government but does not specifically address the constitutional limits on power.
• Option (b) describes a government where the head has nominal powers, which is a characteristic of a constitutional monarchy or parliamentary system, but not a definition of constitutional government per se.
• Option (c) refers to a government where the head holds real powers, which could be characteristic of various forms of government but does not specifically define a constitutional government.

Thus, (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution best describes the concept of a constitutional government.

The correct answer is (d) Tribal languages.

Explanation:

• Halbi: A language spoken by the Halba tribe, primarily in the central Indian states of Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
• Ho: A language spoken by the Ho tribe, mainly found in the Indian states of Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal.
• Kui: A language spoken by the Kui-speaking people in the Indian states of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

These terms refer to tribal languages spoken by various indigenous communities in India.

The correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
   • This statement is correct. Tiger Woods was the first recipient of the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award, which he won in the year 2000 when the awards were first instituted.
2. Statement 2: The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
   • This statement is incorrect. While Formula One drivers have won the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award multiple times (e.g., Michael Schumacher, Lewis Hamilton), the award has not been dominated by Formula One athletes. Other athletes from various sports, such as tennis players, track and field athletes, and golfers, have also received this award.
3. Statement 3: Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others.
   • This statement is correct. Roger Federer has won the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award a record five times, which is the most by any individual athlete.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
   • This statement is incorrect. The official motto for the 32nd Summer Olympics (Tokyo 2020) was "United by Emotion." "A New World" was the motto of the Rio 2016 Olympics, not the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
2. Statement 2: Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
   • This statement is correct. The Tokyo 2020 Olympics included Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, and Karate as new sports, along with the return of Baseball/Softball, which had been previously included in the Olympics but was not part of the 2012 and 2016 Games.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

he correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
   • This statement is incorrect. The finalists for the ICC World Test Championship were decided based on the teams' points percentage (PCT), not just the number of matches won. The PCT is calculated as the percentage of points won out of the total points available. This method was used to account for the different number of matches played by each team due to the COVID-19 pandemic, which disrupted the schedule.
2. Statement 2: New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
   • This statement is also incorrect. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England in the ICC World Test Championship standings because of a higher points percentage (PCT), not simply because they won more matches. Points percentage takes into account the points won relative to the number of matches played, which gives a more accurate reflection of performance across teams that might have played a different number of matches.

Thus, both statements are incorrect.